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AleksandrR [38]
3 years ago
13

On January 1, Year 1, Li Company purchased an asset that cost $45,000. The asset had an expected useful life of five years and a

n estimated salvage value of $9,000. Li uses the straight-line method for the recognition of depreciation expense. At the beginning of the fourth year, the company revised its estimated salvage value to $4,500. What is the amount of depreciation expense to be recognized during Year 4? Multiple Choice $18,900 $7,200 $9,450 $11,700
Business
1 answer:
maw [93]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

$9,450

Explanation:

In straight line depreciation the Depreciable value (Cost of asset - Salvage value of asset) is expensed over useful life of the asset. Each year same value of expense is charged.

When the salvage value is revised the value of depreciation will also be revised.

First we will calculate the Book value at the beginning of year 4.

Depreciable value = $45,000 - $9,000 = $36,000

Depreciation per year = $36,000 / 5 years = $7,200 per year

Book Value at start of year 4 = $45,000 - ($7,200 x 3 ) = $23,400

after revision of salvage value:

Depreciable value at start of year 4 = $23,400 - $4,500 = $18,900

Numbers of year remaining = 5 - 3 = 2 years

Depreciation each year = $18,900 / 2 = $9,450  

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Tems11 [23]

Answer:

Part A)

Year 0 net cash flow would comprise of basic price, modification cost and requirement for net working capital. The formula for cash flow in Year 0 would be:

Year 0 Net Cash Flow = -Basic Price - Modification Cost - NWC

______________

Using the values provided in the question, we get,

Year 0 Net Cash Flow = -190,000 - 47,500 - 9,500 = -$247,000

______________________

Part B:

Year 1, 2 and 3 would required adjustment for depreciation charges (under MACRS) against expected savings. The depreciation rates for 3 year class asset would be 33%, 45% and 15% for Year 1, Year 2 and Year 3 respectively.

Depreciation would be calculated on the equipment's basic price and modification cost.

The formula that can be used to calculate the net operating cash flow would be:

Net Operating Cash Flow = (Sales - Depreciation)*(1-Tax Rate) + Depreciation

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Using the values provided in the question, we get, the table in the attached file

Important Information:

Depreciation (Year 1) = (190,000 + 47,500)*33% = $78,375

Depreciation (Year 2) = (190,000 + 47,500)*45% = $106,875

Depreciation (Year 3) = (190,000 + 47,500)*15% = $35,625

______________________

Part C:

Additional non operating cash flow would consist of after-tax salvage value and return of net working capital. Relevant formulas are:

Additional Non Operating Cash Flow = After Tax Salvage Value + Return of Net Working Capital

After Tax Salvage Value = Sales Value +/- Tax on Loss/Gain from Sale of Asset

Loss/Gain from Sale of Asset = Sales Value - Book Value

Book Value = (Basic Price + Modification Cost)*(1-(33%+45%+15%))

______________

Using the above mentioned formulas, we get,

Book Value = (190000 + 47500)*(1-(33%+45%+15%)) = $16,625

Gain on Sale of Equipment = 66,500 - 16,625 = $49,875

Tax on Gain = $49,875*30% = $14,962.50

After Tax Salvage Value = 66,500 - 14,962.50 = $51,537.50

_____________________

Additional (Non Operating) Cash Flow = $51,537.50 + $9,500 = $61,037.50 or $61,038

Explanation:

8 0
3 years ago
Thornbrough Corporation produces and sells a single product with the following characteristics: Per Unit Percent of Sales Sellin
DaniilM [7]

Answer:

-$5,500

Explanation:

The computation of the overall effect on the company net operating income is as follows:

New Variable cost per unit is

= $44 + $11

= $55

Now the new contribution margin per unit is

= $220 - $55

= $165

New unit Monthly sales is

= 7,000 units + 500 units

= 7,500

Now

New total contribution margin :

= 7,500 units × $165

= $1,237,500

And, the Current total contribution margin is

= 7,000 units × $176

= $1,232,000

So, the change would be

= $1,232,000 - $1,237,500

= -$5,500

6 0
2 years ago
Retained earnings $52,000 Accounts Payable $15,000 Supplies 37,000 Common stock 25,000 Equipment 72,000 Note payable (due in 18
Naddika [18.5K]

Answer:

$22,000

Explanation:

Current liabilities are debts that a company must pay within a twelve month period.

This company's current liabilities are:

  • Accounts payable  $15,000
  • Interest payable  $7,000

Total current liabilities = $15,000 + $7,000 = $22,000

Since the note payable is due in 18 months, it is not considered a current liability.  

8 0
3 years ago
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Lelechka [254]

A(n) blank Business model is a plan that details how a company creates, delivers, and generates revenues.

<h3>What exactly is a business model?</h3>

An organization's conceptual framework, which includes its mission, objectives, and continuing strategies for accomplishing them, is known as a business model.

A business model is essentially a specification outlining how a company achieves its goals.

<h3>A successful business model is what?</h3>

As an illustration, Clay Christensen of Harvard Company School proposes that a business model should include four components: a customer value proposition, a profit formula, essential resources, and key procedures.

Learn more about Business model :

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6 0
2 years ago
Bargeron corporation has a target capital structure of 64 percent common stock, 9 percent preferred stock, and 27 percent debt.
dalvyx [7]

a.

WACC is calculated as –

WACC = (Weight of common stock X Cost of common stock) + (Weight of preferred stock X Cost of preferred stock) + (Weight of debt X After tax cost of debt)

WACC = (64% X 13.4%) + (9% X 6.4%) + (27% X ((1- 40%)*8.1%))

WACC = 10.46%

b. After tax cost of debt is calculated as –

After tax cost of debt = (1- tax rate) X cost of debt pre-tax

After tax cost of debt = ((1- 40%)*8.1%))

After tax cost of debt = 4.86%

6 0
3 years ago
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