0.6 cup of gliter is used for 1 cup of glue and 1.6 cup of gliter glue is made with 1 cup of glue.
Part A
Given that,
15 cup of gliter is for 25 cup of glue ,
Therefore, "X" cup of gliter is for 1 cup of glue
X = (1*15)/25
X= 0.6 cup of gliter
Part B,
Given that,
From part A 0.6 cup of gliter is for 1 cup of glue
Thus, 1 cup of glue and 0.6 cup of gliter when mixed will form "Y" cup of gliter glue
Now, Y= 0.6 cup of gliter + 1 cup of glue
Y= 1.6 cup of gliter glue
which approximates to 2 cup of gliter glue.
For more information on cross multiplication kindly visit to
brainly.com/question/11203238
When you first pick a ticket, there are 2 winning tickets and 40 total tickets. This means that there is a 2/40 chance of your ticket being a winning one. This fraction can be reduced to 1/20.
After this, there will be 1 winning ticket left and 39 total tickets. There is a 1/39 chance of the next ticket being a winning one. We multiply these two fractions together to get our answer. 1/20 * 1/39 = 1/780, so there is a 1/780 chance of having 2 winning tickets.
Answer:
B
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
4 balloon would expect to be orange
I'm thinking this is what the problem looks like:
. The first thing to do is to move the
over to the other side because it has a common denominator with the other side. Doing that and at the same time combining them over their common denominator looks like this:
. The best way to solve for x now is to cross-multiply to get 3(4-x)=-4(x-4). Distributing through the parenthesis is 12 - 3x = -4x + 16. Solving for x gives us x = 4. Of course when we sub a 4 back in for x we get real problems, don't we? Dividing by zero breaks every rule in math that there ever was! So, yes, the solution is extraneous.
