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maxonik [38]
3 years ago
12

What was the historical reason for the separation of powers?

History
2 answers:
kifflom [539]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The separation of powers is a political principle in some forms of government, in which the legislative, executive and judicial powers of the State are exercised by different government bodies, independent of each other. This is the fundamental quality that characterizes democracy.

Montesquieu argued that "every man who has power is inclined to abuse it; He goes until he finds limits. In order that power can not be abused, it is necessary for the disposition of things to detain power". In this way, the vigilance of the three powers among themselves is entrusted, since each one of them supervises, controls and stops the excesses of the others to prevent, by own ambition, that one of them predominates over the others. It can be contrasted with the merger of powers and separation of functions in parliamentary systems, where the executive and the legislature are unified, because the legislature appoints the executive.  

This doctrine does not refer only to the separation and balance of the three classic powers of the Government, but to the need to divide the political power where it is located, be it in the municipal, regional or national sphere, in order to guarantee political freedom and avoid abuses of power, through the surveillance and reciprocal control of separate powers.

chubhunter [2.5K]3 years ago
6 0
The historical reasoning for separation of power because congress believed no one branch should have too much power and thus separating equal power into all three branches 
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3 years ago
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julsineya [31]

As I understand it, Laissez-faire ideology maintains that the "free market" is the best way to determine what businesses can and should do. This means that businesses, in competition with one another, should be free to determine their paths free from any government rules or regulations. The belief is that the competition among various businesses will ultimately result in the best outcomes for society in general - Adam Smith's "invisible hand". As part of this philosophy, workers should also be free to compete with each other and choose to work wherever they wish and this process will also result in the best results for the workers as well.

However, isn't there a huge assumption in this philosophy? Doesn't the whole justification of this belief depends on the condition that there is perfect competition and that any company and any worker have the equal ability to compete with one another?

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To recap, if the Laissez-faire ideology maintains the best economic policy for society as a whole, and it depends on there being perfect competition on an ongoing basis with minimal government intervention, doesn't it fall apart if there is less than the perfect competition?

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