YES
f(x)=0 when x is from (-infinity to 1)
f(x)=0.40x when x is from [1 to 99]
f(x)=0.50x when x is from (99 to +infinity)
Here f(x) is what Joaquin earns which is dependent on the weight (represented by x), thus the amount of money he receives is a function of weight.
First mutiply 5/8 and 4/5 then find the lowest common denominator which is 10 then you should have your original anwser
500 ml easy peasy question free points yaay
Answer:
31
Step-by-step explanation:
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