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GaryK [48]
3 years ago
6

The distinction between a normal and an inferior good is A. when income​ increases, demand for a normal good increases while dem

and for an inferior good falls. B. normal goods are used together while inferior goods are used for the same purposes. C. when income​ increases, demand for a normal good decreases while demand for an inferior good increases. D. normal goods are used for the same purposes while inferior goods are used together.
Business
1 answer:
alexdok [17]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The correct answer is option A.

Explanation:

Normal goods have positive income elasticity, so when there is an increase in the income of the consumer, the quantity demanded of the normal goods will increase.

On the other hand, the inferior goods have a negative income elasticity. So when the income of the consumer increases the demand for inferior goods decline. This is because as income increases, the consumers will prefer normal goods.

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If the price of a product increases rev: 05_10_2018 Multiple Choice total revenue will definitely increase. consumer surplus wil
Gekata [30.6K]

Answer:

consumer surplus will decrease.

Explanation:

Consumer surplus is defined as the difference between the price customers are willing to pay for a product and what they actually pay.

On the demand and supply curve it is indicated by the shaded area between equillibrum and demand curve as illustrated in the attached diagram.

For example let's assume the price a customer was willing to pay for a product was $50 and market price was $30

Initial consumer surplus= 50- 30= $20

Assume bmarket price increase to $40

The new consumer surplus is= 50- 40

Present consumer surplus= $10

So a price increase causes a decrease in the consumer surplus.

6 0
3 years ago
Georgia, a widow, has take-home pay of $1,900 a week. her disability insurance coverage replaces 60 percent of her earnings afte
scoray [572]

Georgia will receive $17,100.

If Georgia was out of work for 19 weeks she would receive 60% of her weekly pay.

In order to calculate 60% you multiply $1,900 x .6 = $1,140.

Georgia’s Disability insurance will pay $1,140 per week after a four week waiting period. She is out for 19 weeks, so with the 4 week waiting period, she will collect benefits for 15 weeks. 15 weeks x $1,140 = $17,100 total.

5 0
3 years ago
5. A man has $ 10,000 to invest. He invests $ 4000 at 5 % and $ 3500 at 4 %. In order to have a yearly income of $ 500, he must
Len [333]
6.4%

200 from the 5% of 4000
140 from 4% on 3500

160 on 6.4% on 2500
4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Firm X and Firm Y both sell the same products at the same price; both firms are the same size with identical sales levels; Firm
Vika [28.1K]

Answer:

The options are given below:

A. Firm X

B. Firm Y

C. Same variability of operating profits

D. It would depend on tax effect on taxable income

The correct option is B. Firm Y

Explanation:

This is because firm Y has a higher operating leverage than firm X.

<u>Operating Leverage</u> refers to a cost-accounting formula that measures the degree to which a firm can increase operating income by increasing revenue. Operating leverage actually boils down to the analysis of fixed costs and variable costs, and it is highest in companies that have a high fixed operating costs in comparison with variable operating costs. What this means is that this kind of company makes use of more fixed assets. On the other hand, operating leverage is lowest in companies that have a low fixed operating costs when compared with variable operating costs.

Companies with high operating leverage are capable of making more money from each additional sale if they do not have to incur more costs to produce more sales.

Therefore, from the scenario given above, we can conclude that firm Y has a higher operating leverage than firm X, because firm X has lower fixed costs than firm Y, and a higher variable cost than firm Y as well. Hence, firm Y has the potential to make more operating profits from its business activities.

4 0
3 years ago
The following annual amounts pertain to the Wolf Company: Estimated Overhead Costs $ 101,988 Estimated Direct Labor hours 67,992
mezya [45]

Answer:

under applied by $1,000.

Explanation:

The formula is shown below:

Predetermined overhead rate = (Total estimated manufacturing overhead) ÷ (estimated direct labor-hours)

= $101,998 ÷ 67,992 hours

= $1.50

Now we have to find the applied overhead which equal to

= Actual direct labor-hours × predetermined overhead rate

= 70,000 hours × $1.50

= $105,000

So, the ending overhead equals to

= Actual manufacturing overhead - actual overhead

= $106,000 - $105,000

= $1,000 under-applied

8 0
3 years ago
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