Answer:
Yes
Step-by-step explanation:
Hope this helps!
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F(x) = -6(1.02)^x has a y-intercept at f(x) = -6(1.02)^0
f(x) = -6(1)
f(x) = -6
f(x) has a y-intercept at (0, -6)
g(x) has a y-intercept at (0, -3)
Therefore, the y-intercept of f(x) is equal to 2 times the y-intercept of g(x).
