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xxTIMURxx [149]
3 years ago
12

Please answer this question now in two minutes

Mathematics
1 answer:
algol [13]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

d is 5 units

Step-by-step explanation:

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Urgent solve this please
katen-ka-za [31]

Answer:

39.12

Step-by-step explanation:

One of the properties of a rectangle is that every angle in it is congruent. This means that when a diagonal is drawn (a segment connecting opposite corners), a right triangle is formed. One can apply the Pythagorean theorem, this theorem states the following;

a^2 + b^2 = c^2,

Where (a) and (b) are the legs, or segments adjacent (next to) the right angle, and (c) is the hypotenuse (the side opposite the right angle).

The legs of the right triangle formed by the diagonal in a rectangle will be the sides of the rectangle. Using this knowledge, one can state the following,

a^2 = b^2 = c^2\\\\21^2 + 33^2 = c^2

Simplify,

441 + 1089 = c^2\\\\1530 = c^2

Inverse operations,

1530 = c^2\\\\39.1152=c

4 0
3 years ago
Which expression is equivalent to √225/625M^4N^6?
Naddika [18.5K]
This is equivalent to 3/5m^2n^3
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please solve this question faaaast​
Kazeer [188]

Answer:

300-400

Step-by-step explanation:

The first step is finding the total of the data we have. So, we take 5 + 10 + 15 + 20 + 25 + 15 + 10 which equals 80.

The median is the middle point of all the data. If it's an odd number, you can calculate the median with the equation (n+1) / 2, plugging in the total amount of data for n.

When it's an even number though, there is no one middle point since the data splits evenly in 2, so we have to use 2 equations: n/2 & (n/2) + 1. Then, we find the average of those two data points. (Although, you don't have to do that for this particular question).

When we plug 80 in for n in both of these equations, we get 40 and 41.

To where this is in the question, we have to count up from the bottom of the chart. 1-5 is below 100, 6-15 is 100-200, 16-30 is 200-300, and 31-50 is 300-400.

Since 40 and 41 are between 31 and 50, the answer is 300-400.

Hope this helps! :)

6 0
2 years ago
The value of a machine, V, at the end of t years is given by V = C(1 - 1)', where is the original cost and r is the rate of depr
NNADVOKAT [17]

Answer:

The value of the machine after two years is approximately $466.6

Step-by-step explanation:

The details of the valuation of the machine are;

The function giving the machine value, 'V', is V = C \cdot (1 - r)^t

Where;

C = The original cost of the machine

r = The depreciation rate

t = The time the machine has been in service

When C = $576, r = 0.1, t = 2 years, we have;

V = 576 \times (1 - 0.1)^2 = 466.56

Therefore, the value of the machine that costs $576 having a depreciation of 0.1 after 2 years is, V = $466.58

By rounding to the nearest cent, we have, V = $466.6.

8 0
3 years ago
Enter the number of complex zeros for the polynomial function in the box.
NikAS [45]
Since the equation has a degree of 5 then, it will definitely have 5 zeroes. Complex zeroes of the polynomial always come in pair such that even if there are five zeroes, the complex zeroes could only be either 2 or 4 or none. 

Hence, the answer to this item is none, 2 or 4. 
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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