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melomori [17]
3 years ago
14

The bonds of Topstone Industries are currently selling for 103.3 percent of their face value. These bonds mature in 14 years and

pay an annual coupon of 7 percent of face value. What is Topstone's pre-tax cost of debt?A) 6.63 percentB) 7.35 percentC) 7.84 percentD) 8.60 percentE) 9.45 percent
Business
1 answer:
just olya [345]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

A.) 6.63%

Explanation:

Using a Financial calculator, key in the following inputs to solve for YTM;

Face value of the bond ; FV = 1,000

Price of the bond; PV= 103.3% *1,000 = -1,033

Total duration or time to maturity of the bond; N = 14 years

Use annual coupon rate to find Coupon payment (PMT);

Coupon PMT = coupon rate * Face value

coupon rate = 7% OR 0.07 as a decimal

Coupon PMT = 0.07 *1,000 = 70

Next, with these inputs, press on buttons; CPT I/Y = 6.631%

Therefore, the Pre-tax cost of debt = 6.63%

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The owner of a bicycle repair shop forecasts revenues of $188,000 a year. Variable costs will be $57,000, and rental costs for t
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Answer:

Revenues=$188,000

Less: Variable Costs=$57,000

Less: Rentals=$37,000

Earnings before depreciation and tax=$94,000

Less: Depreciation =$17,000

Earnings before tax=$77,000

Less: Tax40%=$30,800

Net Income=$46,200

a) Dollars in minus dollars out

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Dollars out = Variable cost + Rentals + Tax = $57,000 + $37,000 + $30,800 = $124,800

Operating cash flow = $188,000 - $124,800 = $63,200

b) Adjusted accounting profits

Operating cash flow = Net income + Depreciation = $46,200 + $17,000 = $63,200

c) Add back depreciation tax shield

Operating cash flow = Earnings before depreciation and tax x (1 - tax rate) + Depreciation tax shield

or, Operating cash flow = $94,000 x (1 - 0.40) + $17,000 x 40% = $63,200

Yes, all the results are same.

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3 years ago
“knowledge of the job processes, methods, tools and techniques” is which managerial skill?
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Bill has been adding funds to his investment account each year for the past 3 years. He started with an initial investment of $1
Nookie1986 [14]

Answer:

2.96% will be effective rate of the investment

Explanation:

First year:

1,000 x 1 + 10%) = 1,100

<em><u>Second year: </u></em>

1,100 + 3,000 = 4,100 invesmtent balance

4,100 x (1  - 5%) = 3,895

<em><u>Third year:</u></em>

3,895 + 2,000 = 5,895

5,895 x (1 + 2%) = 6012.9

<em><u>Fourth year:</u></em>

6012.9 + 500 = 6512.9

6,512.9 x (1+ 8%)  =  7033.932

We calcualte rate that is equivalent with the following cash flow:

1,000 (1+r)^4 + 3,000  (1+r)^3 +  2,000(1+r)^2 +  500(1+r) = 7,033.93

We solve using excel goal seek

0.029646151

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There are monetary policy lags

<h3>What is monetary policy lags ?</h3>

The presence of temporal delays is one of the drawbacks of countercyclical monetary policy. The monetary authority must have time to recognise the need for action, take that action, and observe how that action affects economic activity. The time relationship between the resultant monetary series and the subsequent series of impacts of monetary operations is how Friedman defines "lag." He claims that economic circumstances are only affected by monetary measures after a "long and varied lag." Friedman makes a distinction between three fundamental lags: the administrative lag, the operation lag, and the recognition lag.

To learn more about monetary policy check the given linkhttps://brainly.in/question/6090122

#SPJ4

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