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Lena [83]
3 years ago
12

Carlyle Inc. is considering two mutually exclusive projects. Both require an initial investment of $15,000 at t = 0. Project S h

as an expected life of 2 years with after-tax cash inflows of $7,000 and $12,000 at the end of Years 1 and 2, respectively. In addition, Project S can be repeated at the end of Year 2 with no changes in its cash flows. Project L has an expected life of 4 years with after-tax cash inflows of $5,200 at the end of each of the next 4 years. Each project has a WACC of 9.00%. What is the equivalent annual annuity of the most profitable project?a. $ 569.97b. $ 782.34c. $ 865.31d. $1,522.18e. $1,846.54
Business
1 answer:
Dafna1 [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

c. $865.31

Explanation:

Data:

Project S

Initial Outlay = $15,000

Y1 CF = $7,000

Y2 CF = $12,000

Project L

Initial Outlay = $15,000

Y1 to Y4 CF = $5,200

<u>To solve for Project S</u>

In ordered to compare project S with project Project L, we shall prolong it to four years.

cashflow stream will be as follows:

Y0=-$15,000  Y1=$7,000  Y2=-$3,000($12,000 CF - $15,000 outlay for prolonging the project second time)  Y3=$7,000  Y4=$12,000

NPV=-15000/(1+0.09)^0+7000/(1+0.09)^1-3000/(1+0.09)^2+7000/(1+0.09)^3+12000/(1+0.09)^4

NPV=2803.37

Following is the formula for Equivalent annual annuity

EAA=(r*NPV)/(1-1/(1+r)^n)

EAA = Equivalent annual equity

NPV = Net present value

r = Interest rate

n = Number of periods

EAA=(.09*2803.37)/(1-1/(1+.09)^4)

EAA=865.31

<u>To solve For Project L</u>

In order to calculate present value of the annuity, following formula will be used:

PV=PMT(1+(1/(1+r)^n)/r+FV/(1+r)^n

<em>NPV = Initial outflow - Present Value</em>

PV=5200*(1+(1/(1+0.09)^4)/0.09

PV=16846.54

NPV=1846.54

Using the above formula we can calculate EAA:

EAA=(.09*1846.54)/(1-1/(1+.09)^4)

EAA=569.97

The most profitable EAA is of project S

*all figures are rounded off to two decimal points*

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