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katen-ka-za [31]
3 years ago
6

Suppose that the manager of a company has estimated the probability of a super-event sometime during the next three years that w

ill disrupt all suppliers as 2%. In addition, the firm currently uses four suppliers for its main component, and the manager estimates the probability of a unique-event that would disrupt one of them sometime during the next three years to be 20%. Supplier management costs during this period are $50,000 per supplier. The financial cost incurred if all four suppliers are disrupted at the same time is estimated to be $10,000,000. What is the expected monetary value (i.e., cost) of the current supplier diversification arrangement? Show the results by drawing the decision tree in POM-QM.

Business
1 answer:
laiz [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The expected monetary value(cost) of current supplier diversification arrangement is 415,680.

Explanation:

Find the given attachment.

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GenaCL600 [577]

Answer:

a. ½(Y² - Y) is an unbiased estimator of the variance.

b. 2 Standard Error = 2√(Y²/2 - Y/2)

Explanation:

Given

E(Y) = 1/p

V(Y) = (1 - p)/p²

Simplifying V(Y)...

V(Y) = 1/p² - 1/p

Because V(Y) = 1/p² - 1/p and E(Y) = 1/p,

We'll guess that there might be an unbiased estimator of shape

aY² + bY.

Solving E(aY² + bY)...

First, E(Y²) = V(Y) + (E(Y))²

Substituting the values of V(Y) and E(Y);

E(Y²) = 1/p² - 1/p + (1/p)²

E(Y²) = 1/p² - 1/p + 1/p²

E(Y²) = 2/p² - 1/p

With the above,

E(aY² + bY) is then equal to

E(aY² + bY) = 2a/p² - a/p + b/p

The above equation is equal to V(Y), if and only if

a = ½ and b = -½

-------------- Checking------------

Let E(aY² + bY) = V(Y)

i.e.

2a/p² - a/p + b/p = 1/p² - 1/p

Multiply through by l

2a/p - a + b = 1/p - 1

Comparing right hand side to left hand side

2a/p = 1/p ----- Equation 1

And

- a + b = - 1 ------- Equation 2

Solving Equation 1 (Multiply both sides by p)

2a = 1

So, a = ½

Substitute ½ for a in Equation 2

-½ + b = -1

b = -1 + ½

b = -½

------------ End --------------

Thus ½(Y² - Y) is an unbiased estimator of the variance.

b.

2 Standard Error is given by

2√V(Y)

= 2√(1/p² - 1/p)

= 2√(Y²/2 - Y/2)

6 0
3 years ago
According to purchasing-power parity, if it took 58 Indian rupees to buy a dollar today, but it took 55 to buy it a year ago, th
oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer:

Given that,

Current exchange rate between India and U.S :

1 Dollar = Rs. 58

Exchange rate between India and U.S a year ago :

1 Dollar = Rs. 55

Above information conclude that the currency of India depreciates whereas  currency of united states appreciates.

This is due to the increase in the exchange rate in India. Now, a dollar become more expensive than it a year ago.

So, the Indian rupee depreciated and U.S dollar appreciated.

 

3 0
3 years ago
William wants to have a total of $8000 in two years so that he can put a hot tub on his deck. He finds an account that pays 5% i
aev [14]
He needs to put 7600
6 0
4 years ago
Hill Co. can further process Product O to produce Product P. Product O is currently selling for $60 per pound and costs $42 per
Elina [12.6K]

Answer:

(A) True

Explanation:

Differential cost is the difference between the cost to produce Product O and produce Product P; in this case it’s the additional cost of $13 per pound to produce

So the statement “The differential cost of producing Product P is $13 per pound” is true

4 0
3 years ago
Travis bought a share of stock for $31.50, the stock paid a dividend of $0.85, and Travis sold it six months later for $27.65. W
Luden [163]

Answer:

Dollar profit loss = $3

Holding period return = negative 9%

Explanation:

In order to find the dollar profit or loss return we will add the dividend and selling price because that the dividend plus the selling price is the cash that Travis receives or the positive cash and we will subtract the buying price from it because it is the negative cash flow. So we will add all the positive cash flows and subtract negative cash flow from it in order to find the dollar profit loss or return.

Selling price = 27.65

Dividend = 0.85

Selling price + Dividend= 28.5

Selling price = 31.50

Dollar profit loss or return = 28.50-31.5=-3

Loss= $3

In order to find the holding period return we will divide add the dividend and selling price , subtract buying price from it and then divide it by buying price.

(27.65+0.85-31.5)/31.5= -0.09 = -9%

Holding period return = negative 9%

5 0
3 years ago
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