Answer: Please refer to Explanation
Explanation:
1. Inflationary Gap.
Due to the availability of more disposal income due to tax cuts, more amount is being spent on consumption leading to a rise in actual GDP which is more than the potential GDP as the economy has not adjusted.
2. Output Gap.
This is the difference between the Actual GDP and the Potential GDP.
3. Demand Shock
This increases or reduces Aggregate Demand due but only temporarily.
4. Recessionary Gap.
This is where actual GDP falls below Potential GDP.
5. Supply Shock.
Like a demand shock, it suddenly increases or reduces the supply of goods and services. It is temporary as well.
6. Self Correction
Economists believe that in the long run, the Economy is capable of adjusting to shocks and returning to it's potential and natural levels.
Answer:
<u>13.2%</u>
Explanation:
As per Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM),
Expected Rate Of Return = 
wherein,
= Risk free rate of return on treasury bonds
B= Beta , which represents the degree of sensitivity of security return to the market return.
= Return on market portfolio
Thus, Expected rate of return of security X = 6 + 1.2(12 - 6)
= 13.2%
CAPM model is used for calculating expected rate of return. As per the model, the investors expect a risk premium represented by excess of rate of return of market portfolio over risk free rate , in addition for the risk free rate of return.
The risk premium serves as a compensation for investing in risky securities instead of risk free securities.
Answer:
b) Additional paid-in capital.
Explanation:
Closing process in accounting is a period end activities which involves
the movement or transfer of temporary accounts to permanent accounts.
Temporary accounts are all income statement accounts like sales account, rent account, depreciation expense account, telephone expense account e.t.c.
This exercise is to prepare temporary accounts for the next period. since temporary accounts are measured as at period end, the transaction of a period must not be allowed to mix with another, hence the need to always close or bring to zero all temporary accounts.
In the question, all are income accounts except additional paid-in capital
Answer:
Interest= $90
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Initial investment= $3,000
i= 3%
Number of periods= 1
<u>First, we need to calculate the future value, using the following formula:</u>
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
FV= 3,000*1.03= $3,090
<u>Now, the interest earned:</u>
Interest= 3,090 - 3,000
Interest= $90