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Vladimir [108]
3 years ago
13

The set of companies a product goes through on the way to the consumer is called

Business
2 answers:
RoseWind [281]3 years ago
7 0
 it is the distribution chain

Lorico [155]3 years ago
4 0
The garbage to drop them om
You might be interested in
Pressure with Two Liquids, Hg and Water. An open test tube at 293 K is filled at the bottom with 12.1 cm of Hg, and 5.6 cm of wa
Radda [10]

Answer:

1170839.28 dyn/cm^2

16.9816 psia

117.083928 kN/m^2

Explanation:

To calculate the absolute pressure in the bottom of tube we need to sum the atmosferic and gauge pressure.

P_{abs}=P_{atm}+P_G

And the gauge pressure is given by the contributions of columns of water (P_{w}) and mercury(P_{Hg}), we can calculate the contribution of each column as:

P= \rho g h (*)

where \rho is the respective density, g gravity and h is height.

So we have all the data required to use the above equations (P_{atm}, height and density of each column) we only need to be carefully with the units.

For simplicity we can to express all pressure contributions in mmHg ( P_{atm}, P_{w} and P_{Hg}). Note that the units "x" mmHg  means the pressure at the bottom of a column of mercury of "x" mm high. For example, in this case we have a column 12.1 cm of Hg, that is a column of 121 mmHg (passing from cm to mm only requires multiply by 10) pressure exerted by that column is 121 mmHg.

Now pressure of 5.6 cm (56 mm) of water would be 56 mm of water, but it is not the same that mmHg, since the density of water is lower, the pressure exerted by 1 mm of water is lower than the exerted by 1 mm of Hg. The conversion between mmHg and mm of water is given by the relation between the densities.

mmHg=\frac{\rho_w*mmH_2O}{\rho_{Hg}}

mmHg=\frac{0.998*mmH_2O}{13.55}=0.0737 mmH_2O

And pressure of water in mmHg is

0.0737*56=4.1246 mmHg

The absolute pressure is:

P_{abs}=P_{atm}+P_G= 756 + 121 + 4.1246  = 881.1246 mmHg = 88.11246cmHg

To pass to dyn/cm^2 units we need to use the equation (*)

P= \rho g h = 13.55 \frac{g}{cm^3} * 980.665 \frac{cm}{s^2} * 88.11246 cmHg = 1170839.28 \frac{g}{cm s^2} = 1170839.28 \frac{dyn}{cm^2}

Note: We need to use cm Hg for units coherence

Now passing from dyn/cm^2 to kN/m^2 (or kPa) we need to consider that 1 dyn is 10^{-8} kN and 1 cm^2 is 10^{-4} m^2.  

1170839.28 \frac{dyn}{cm^2} * \frac{10^{-8}kN}{1 dyn}*\frac{cm^2}{10^{-4}m^2}=117.083928kN/m^2

Now passing kN/m^2 to psia. We need to consider that 1 psia is 6.89476.

117.083928kN/m^2*\frac{1psia}{6.89476kN/m^2}=16.9816 psia

 

8 0
3 years ago
Fixed cost per unit is inversely proportional to the volume of units produced.
Levart [38]
True. Fixed cost per unit is inversely proportional to the volume of units produced.

Fixed costs per unit are inversely proportional to the volume produced because depending on the amount of units made, the amount spent on fixed costs is then based. Because they are related to one another, this statement is true.  
5 0
3 years ago
"'Suppose that while in college, you saved money by eating generic fruits and vegetables from the grocery store. Now, suppose th
zysi [14]

Answer:

Normal goods

Explanation:

Normal goods are goods that are goods whose demand increases when income increases and falls when income falls.

I increase my demand for organic fruits and vegetables when my income increased. This shows they are normal goods.

Generic fruits and vegetables are inferior goods.

Inferior goods are goods whose demand falls when income rises and increases when income falls.

I hope my answer helps you

8 0
3 years ago
Suppose you are the manager of a watchmaking firm operating in a competitive market. Your cost of production is given by C = 200
irga5000 [103]

Answer:

1. 20 units

2. $600

Explanation:

1. C = 200 + 2q^{2}

MC = 4q

Price, P = $80

For maximizing profits,

Marginal cost =  Price of the commodity

4q = 80

q = 20 units

C = 200 + 2q^{2}

C = 200 + 2(20)^{2}

         = 200 + 800

         = 1,000

2. Profit = Total revenue - Total cost

             = (Price × Quantity) - TC

             = (80 × 20) - $1,000

             = $1,600 - $1,000

             = $600

3. We know that the firm in the short run will be produce at a point where total revenue is greater than the total variable cost

Average variable cost = variable cost ÷ quantity

                              =\frac{2Q^{2}}{Q}

                                     = 2Q

MC = 4Q

Here,  MC is greater than AVC at any given point.

so in the short run firm will producing short run positive profit.

4 0
3 years ago
What is unique about a dual-axis chart?
Semmy [17]

Answer: B

Or Data is charted by two different types of data.

Explanation:

I got it right

3 0
2 years ago
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