The answer is C, good luck!
Cost of machine = $1,000
![NPV of revenues = p( \frac{1- (1+RoR)^{-n} }{RoR} )](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=NPV%20of%20revenues%20%3D%20p%28%20%5Cfrac%7B1-%20%281%2BRoR%29%5E%7B-n%7D%20%7D%7BRoR%7D%20%29)
=
![600( \frac{1- (1+0.1)^{-3} }{0.1} )](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=600%28%20%5Cfrac%7B1-%20%281%2B0.1%29%5E%7B-3%7D%20%7D%7B0.1%7D%20%29)
= $1,492.11
![NPV of salvage value = FV ( \frac{1}{ (1+RoR)^{n} }](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=NPV%20of%20salvage%20value%20%3D%20FV%20%28%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B%20%281%2BRoR%29%5E%7Bn%7D%20%7D%20)
)=
![100( \frac{1}{ (1+0.1)^{3} } )](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=100%28%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B%20%281%2B0.1%29%5E%7B3%7D%20%7D%20%29)
= $75.13
Total NPV = -1000+1492.11+75.13 = $567.24 ≈ $567
Answer:
Variable overhead efficiency variance = $2,212unfavorable
Explanation:
variable overhead efficiency variance: Variable overhead efficiency variance aims to determine whether or not their exist savings or extra cost incurred on variable overhead as a result of workers being faster or slower that expected.
Since the variable overhead is charged using labour hours, any amount by which the actual labour hours differ from the standard allowable hours would result in a variance
Hours
5,400 units should have taken (5,400×3.8 hours) 20,520
but did take <u> 20,800</u>
Labour hours variance 280 unfavorable
Standard variable overhead rate × <u>$ 7.90</u> per hour
Variable overhead efficiency variance $2,212 unfavorable
Variable overhead efficiency variance = $2,212unfavorable
Of the following, the best criticism of the argument above is that it overlooks the possibility that certain factors operating in the 1980’s but not in the 1970’s diminished people’s incentive to save and invest.
<span>If these other factors, unrelated to the inflation rate, that operated in the 1980’s but not the 1970’s, created an even greater disincentive to savings and investment than high inflation rates provide, then those trends do not provide evidence about the general relationship among savings, investment, and inflation. </span>
Answer:
The rate of return on the risky asset is 16% and on treasury bill is 6% and we need a return of (1100-1,000)/1000= 10% or 0.1
If we think of x as the percentage investment in risky asset and 1-x as the investment in non risky asset we can mathematically find what proportion we need to invest in each asset to get this return.
16x+ 6(1-x)=10
16x+6-6x=10
10x=4
x=4/10
x= 0.4
This equation tells us that we should invest 40% in risky assets and 1-x which is 60% in treasury bills. We can test our answer by putting these values and see if the return is 10 %
(0.4*16)+(0.6*6)= Rate of return
Rate of return=10%
10% of 1000 = 100
100+1000=$1100
Explanation: