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Inessa [10]
3 years ago
13

The goal of any credit card holder should be to A. run up as much debt as possible. B. use the bankruptcy filing as a way to red

uce debt. C. avoid excessive credit card debt. D. pay the least possible each month.
Business
1 answer:
DedPeter [7]3 years ago
4 0
The goal of any credit card holder should be to C.) AVOID EXCESSIVE CREDIT CARD DEBT.

Credit cards are used for the purpose of convenience. Instead of bringing cash to pay for purchases, credit cards are swiped as payment for said purchases. These cards are short-term loans. Its balance should be paid before due date to avoid paying for interest. Its use should not be abused.
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You have just received an offer in the mail from Friendly Loans. The company is offering to loan you $4,250 with low monthly pay
Kobotan [32]

Answer:

73 months

approximately 6 years

Explanation:

The period of time it would take to pay off the loan can be determined using excel nper function as below:

=nper(rate,pmt,-pv,fv)

rate is the interest expressed in monthly terms which is 15.3%/12

pmt is the amount payment per month i.e $90

pv is the amount of loan which is $4250

fv is the balance of the loan after all payments have been made i.e $0

=nper(15.3%/12,90,-4250,0)= 73 months

73 months/12 months=approximately 6 years  

8 0
3 years ago
When is a goodwill impairment loss recognized? a. Annually on a systematic and rational basis. b. Never When both the fair value
gulaghasi [49]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": When both the fair value of a reporting unit and its associated implied goodwill fall below their respective carrying values.

Explanation:

Impairment Loss is the decrease in an asset's net carrying value that exceeds the future undisclosed cash flow it should generate. The net carrying value is an asset's acquisition cost minus depreciation. Impairment occurs when a company sells or abandons an asset that is no longer beneficial.

Thus, <em>a goodwill impairment loss is recognized when the goodwill's net carrying value is below its fair value and the expected cash flow it was to generate.</em>

7 0
3 years ago
Acheson Corporation, which applies manufacturing overhead on the basis of machine-hours, has provided the following data for its
Amanda [17]

Answer:

Over-applied by $3,842

Explanation:

If<em>, Applied Overheads > Actual Overheads, overheads have been overapplied.</em>

<em>and</em>

<em>Since, Applied Overheads < Actual Overheads, overheads have been under- applied.</em>

Applied Overheads = Predetermined rate x Actual Activity

where,

Predetermined rate = Budgeted Overheads  ÷ Budgeted Activity

therefore,

Predetermined rate = $ 157,050 ÷ 4,500

                                  = $34.90

Applied Overheads = $34.90 x 4,580 = $159,842

<em>Since, Applied Overheads > Actual Overheads, overheads have been overapplied.</em>

Over-applied overheads = $159,842 - $ 156,000 = $3,842

5 0
3 years ago
When paying for purchases, debit cards ____.
stealth61 [152]

I'm sure that, when paying for purchases, debit cards are exactly the same as credit cards.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Global Petroleum negotiated a deal with Saudi Arabia in which Global Petroleum would build several refineries in Saudi Arabia an
Lostsunrise [7]

Considering the situation described above, when Global Petroleum negotiated a deal with Saudi Arabia, this is an example of <u>Bartering</u>.

<h3>What is a Bartering?</h3>

Bartering is a transaction agreement whereby both parties agree to pay with goods or services without using money.

Therefore, in this situation, when Global Petroleum negotiated with Saudi Arabia to receive oil as partial payment over 20 years. This is an example of <u>Bartering</u>.

Hence, in this case, it is concluded that the correct answer is <u>Bartering</u>.

Learn more about <u>Bartering</u> here: brainly.com/question/1462751

7 0
3 years ago
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