Answer:
(a) To Record the issuance of the note
Debit Cash $1.57 million
Credit Notes payable $1.57 million
<em>(To record notes payable issuance)</em>
(b) Adjusting entry for interest expense at December 31:
Debit Interest expense $23,550
Credit Interest payable $23,550
<em>(To record interest expense on notes payable as at Dec 31)</em>
Explanation:
Note payable is a promissory note with a written promise made by the borrower to the lender (payee) to pay a certain, definite sum at a specified date.
Interest expense on the notes is calculated as: Principal x Interest Rate x Time
In this case, the total interest expense is $1.57 million x 9%/12 x 6 months = $70,650.
Total interest expense to the Company as at December 31 is therefore $70,650 / 6 months x 2 months = $23,550.
Originally,
Let x = the balance in the first account.
Let y = the balance in the second account.
The total amount in the two accounts is $9,000, therefore
x + y = 9000 (1)
Zack withdraws 10% of x and 60% of y for a total of $2,175.
Therefore
0.1x + 0.6y = 2175
or
x + 6y = 21750 (2)
Subtract (1) from (2).
x + 6y - (x + y) = 21750 - 9000
5y = 12750
y = 2550
From (1), obtain
x = 9000 - 2550 = 6450
The balance in the first account is
0.9*x = 0.9*6450 = $5,805
The remaining balance in the second account is
0.4*y = 0.4*2550 = $1,020
Answer:
The balance in the first account is $5,805
The balance in the second account is $1,020
Answer:
A. 1 and 4 are true
Explanation:
Statement 1: When inflation goes up the market prices of goods increase and reduces buying power of customer. So, if you get $100 even after 5% inflation, you would get $95 worth good.
Statement 2: It is commonly known as, the higher the risk the higher the gain. So, risk premium and risk exhibited by security is directly related with each other.
Statement 3: Since, risk free rate is the compensation for time value of money, that is why it can’t make real risk-free rate negative because real risk rate is there, but inflation can go higher than risk free rate.
Statement 4: Maturity payment is paid to investors or savers after certain period of time along with principal amount.
Hence, A. 1 and 4 are true
Answer:
Explanation:
According to the law of demand,a rise in price leads to a decrease in quantity demanded and a fall in price leads to an increase in quantity demanded.
1.The price of a gallon of 2% milk has risen, therefore, quantity demanded decreases.
2.The price of laser tag has fallen,therefore,quantity demanded increases.
3.The price of dressers and desks has risen,therefore,quantity demanded decreases.
4.The price of pork shoulder has fallen from $3.99 per pound to $1.99 per pound,therefore,quantity demanded increases.
5.Another MP3 album comes free,with purchase of an MP3 album .This means the supplier have effectively halved the price.therefore,quantity demanded increases.
Answer:
a. We have:
Interest cost of long-term fixed-rate = $191,475
Interest cost of short-term variable-rate = $192,51
b. Long-term fixed rate plan is less costly
Explanation:
a. Determine the total interest cost under each plan.
Interest cost of long-term fixed-rate = Amount required to be borrowed * Fixed interest rate per year * Number of years = $690,000 * 9.25% * 3 = $191,475
Interest cost of short-term variable-rate = (Amount required to be borrowed * First year interest rate) + (Amount required to be borrowed * Second year interest rate) + (Amount required to be borrowed * Third year interest rate) = ($690,000 * 7.50%) + ($690,000 * 12.15%) + (($690,000 * 8.25%) = $192,510
b. Which plan is less costly?
Since the $191,475 interest cost of long-term fixed-rate is less than $192,510 interest cost of short-term variable-rate, this implies that long-term fixed rate plan is less costly.
