From the Arithmetic Information given, Pr = 0.049375 ≠ -8.050625 ≠ 0.0325 See explanation below.
<h3>
What are the step by steps solution to the questions above?</h3>
First, lets us restate the question properly. We have
Pr = 1 - ((6*12+6)/80)² = 1 - ((9*12²)/1600) - ((3*12*6)/1600) - (6²/6400) = 1 - 0.005625 * 12² - 0.001875 * 12 * 6 - 0.00015625 * 6²
Note that there are three equals signs. So lets divide the problem according and solve for the different parts.
Lets 1 - ((6*12+6)/80)² ............A
1 - ((9*12²)/1600) - ((3*12*6)/1600) - (6²/6400) .............B; and
1 - 0.005625 * 12² - 0.001875 * 12 * 6 - 0.00015625 * 6² ........C
Solving for A we have
1 - (78/80)²
= 1 - (0.975)²
= 1 - 0.950625
A = 0.049375
Solving for B we have
1 - ((9*12²)/1600) - ((3*12*6)/1600) - (6²/6400)
= 1- (14,256/1600) - (216/1600) - (36/6400)
= 1 - 8.91 - 0.135 - 0.005625
B = -8.050625
Solving for C we have
1 - 0.005625 * 12² - 0.001875 * 12 * 6 - 0.00015625 * 6²
= 1 - 0.005625 * 144 - 0.001875 * 12 * 6 - 0.00015625 * 144
= 0.0325
In summary we can state that:
A = 0.049375
B = -8.050625
C = 0.0325
Given that there were no abstract quantities, we can state that
Pr = A ≠ B ≠C or
Pr = 0.049375 ≠ -8.050625 ≠ 0.0325
Learn more about equations with equal signs at
brainly.com/question/18924248
#SPJ1
"1 indicating a coupon and all other outcomes indicating no coupon"
Probability is (number of successful outcomes) / (number of possible outcomes)
Theoretical Probability of rolling a 1: 1/8
Experimental Probability of using coupons: 4/48 = 1/12
So, the experimental probability of a customer using a coupon (that is, 1/12) is smaller than the theoretical probability of rolling a 1 (that is, 1/8).
4500 + 1.20x < 4.80x
4500 < 4.80x - 1.20x
4500 < 3.60x
4500/3.60 < x
1250 < x.......minimum number would be 1251
Answer:
f
(
2
)
=
20
Explanation:
To evaluate f
(
2
)
substitute x = 2 into f
(
x
)
f
(
2
)
=
(
×
2
2
−
(
4
×
2
×
x
=
28−
8
=
20
I believe the answer is 11/15 .
