Answer:
d. upwards of ninety-five percent of the "Forty-niners" were men.
Explanation:
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Answer:
Because they had <u>a massive exploration by the mother country</u> (the one responsible by the conquest), <u>which took a considerable part of their goods.</u>
Explanation:
The Latin American colonies were different from the British Colonies (Thirteen Colonies and Canada) <u>because they were explored massively by Portugal and Spain during the three centuries of colonialism.</u> The Iberian countries were following an economic and political idea called <u>Mercantilism</u> which, as the main aspect, was<u> the exploration of a colony, taking the goods and sending it to the mother country. Only a small part was left for the colony.</u> And why those colonies don't rebel against the mother country, you may ask. Because since the very moment the Iberian countries began their colonization, they didn't leave any possibility of revolution, with laws and severe control of the settlers and natives. <u>Any try of revolution or riot was massively dismissed with violence.</u>
Answer:
In the aftermath of the Indian Rebellion of 1857, under the provisions of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government nationalized the EIC. The Crown took over its Indian possessions, its administrative powers and machinery, and its armed forces. The EIC was officially dissolved in 1858 and the rebellion also led the British to reorganize the army, the financial system, and the administration in India. The country was thereafter directly governed by the Crown as the new British Raj.
Other person i believe is right
