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3 years ago

What is the difference between features and benefits? no answers to choose from.

Business

2 answers:

devlian [24]3 years ago

5 0

Feature is a fast internet connection. Benefits are quickly finding your way when your lost

andriy [413]3 years ago

4 0

Features is something that it given and you don't have to do anything for it.

Now benefits is different in the sense that benefits are earned. A benefit is something you gained.

Hope this helps!
Brainliest is always appreciated if you feel its deserved.

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If a special sales order is accepted for 8,100 widgets at a price of $39 per unit, and fixed costs increase by $13,000, how

Lana71 [14]

Answer:

D) Increase by $68,000

Explanation:

The computation of change in the operating income is shown below:

Sales ( 8,100 widgets × $39) $315,900

Less: Variable cost (8,100 widgets × $29) ($234,900)

Contribution margin $81,000

Less: Increase in fixed assets -$13,000

Net income increased $68,000

We simply applying the above format so that the change in the operating income could be find out. Since the net income is in positive so it shows an increment

8 0

3 years ago

Kermit is considering purchasing a new computer system. The purchase price is $133,063. Kermit will borrow one-fourth of the pur

lesya [120]

Answer:

NPV = $20,040.35

Explanation

The net present value NPV) of a project is the present value of cash inflow less the present value of cash outflow of the project.

NPV = PV of cash inflow - PV of cash outflow

We can set out the cash flows of the project using the table below:

Annual net cash inflow = Savings - Technician cost = 61,427- 20,000

= $41,427

PV of Cash flow= $41,427 × (1-(1.12^(-5))/0.12= 149,335.06

PV of salvage value = 1.12^(-5)×$6,641 = 3768.281749

NPV = 149,335.06 + 3,768.281 -133,063= 20,040.35

7 0

3 years ago

Agan Interior Design provides home and office decorating assistance to its customers. In normal operation, an average of 2.5 cus

Phantasy [73]

Answer:

A) Single-server single-phase model (M/M/1).

$\lambda=2.5 \,customers/hour\\\\\mu=6\,customers/hour$

B) The goal is not met, as the average time waiting for service is 5.56 minutes.

C) The new mean service rate is 7.5 customers/hour.

In this case, the average time waiting for service is 4 minutes, so the goal is met.

Explanation:

A) This situation can be modeled as a single-server single-phase model (M/M/1).

The mean arrival rate is 2.5 customers per hour.

$\lambda=2.5 \,customer/h$

The mean service rate is 6 customers per hour, calculated as:

$\mu=\frac{60\, min/h}{10 \,min/customer}=6\, customer/h$

B) The average waiting time for a customer can be expressed as:

$W_q=\frac{\lambda}{\mu}\frac{1}{\mu-\lambda} =\frac{2.5}{6}\frac{1}{6-2.5} =0.417*0.222=0.093\,hours\\\\W_q=0.093\,hours*(60min/h)=5.56 \,min$

The average waiting time is 5.56 minutes, so it is more than the goal of 5 minutes.

C) If the average time spent per customer to 8 minutes, the mean service rate becomes

$\mu=\frac{60\, min/h}{8 \,min/customer}=7.5\, customer/h$

An the average waiting time for the service now becomes:

$W_q=\frac{\lambda}{\mu}\frac{1}{\mu-\lambda} =\frac{2.5}{7.5}\frac{1}{7.5-2.5} =0.333*0.2=0.067\,hours\\\\W_q=0.067\,hours*(60min/h)=4 \,min$

The average time is now 4 minutes, so the goal is achieved.

6 0

3 years ago

A company with $70,000 in current assets and $50,000 in current liabilities pays a $1,000 current liability. As a result of this

Rufina [12.5K]

Answer:

Option (b) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Current assets = $70,000

Current liabilities = $50,000

Pays a current liability = $1,000

Current ratio(Prior) :

= Current assets ÷ Current liabilities

= $70,000 ÷ $50,000

= 1.40

Current ratio(After paying liability) :

= (Current assets - $1,000) ÷ (Current liabilities - $1,000)

= ($70,000 - $1,000) ÷ ($50,000 - $1,000)

= $69,000 ÷ $49,000

= 1.41

Therefore, there is an increase in current ratio.

Working capital(Prior):

= Current assets - Current liabilities

= $70,000 - $50,000

= $20,000

Working capital(After paying liability):

= (Current assets - $1,000) - (Current liabilities - $1,000)

= ($70,000 - $1,000) - ($50,000 - $1,000)

= $69,000 - $49,000

= $20,000

Therefore, there is no change in working capital.

3 0

3 years ago

Calculate free cash flow for 2017 for Monarch Textiles, Inc., based on the financial information that follows. Assume that all c

ozzi

Answer:

See below

Explanation:

Computation of free cash flow for Monach textiles, 2017

EBIT = EBT + Interest expense EBIT

EBIT = $408 + $50

EBIT = $458

Tax rate = Tax / EBT

Tax rate = $163.20 / $408

Tax rate = 0.4 = 40%

Operating cash flow = EBIT × (1 - Tax rate) + Depreciation - Change in net working capital - Capital expenditure

= $458 × (1 - 0.4) + $82 - ($640 - $360) - ($460 - $280)

= $274.8 + $82 - $280 - $180

= $274.8 + $92 - $100

= $256.8

5 0

2 years ago