Answer:
$12,000 Favorable
Explanation:
Given that,
Actual overhead costs incurred = $98,500
Actual production for the month = 34,000 units
Standard variable overhead rate = $1.75 per direct labor hour
Standard fixed overhead rate = $1.50 per direct labor hour
One direct labor hour is the standard quantity per finished unit.
Firstly, we need to find out the overhead applied by multiplying the actual production units with the standard overhead rate and standard quantity per finished unit.
Total standard overhead rate:
= Standard variable overhead rate + Standard fixed overhead rate
= $1.75 + $1.50
= $3.25
Overhead applied:
= Actual production × standard quantity per finished unit × Total standard overhead rate
= 34,000 × 1 × $3.25
= $110,500
Therefore, the total manufacturing overhead cost variance is determined by deducting the Actual overhead costs from the overhead applied.
It is calculated as follows:
= Overhead applied - Actual overhead costs incurred
= $110,500 - $98,500
= $12,000 Favorable
Answer:
- After-Tax return on Municipal Bond = 7%
- After-Tax Return on Corporate Bond = 6.72%
Explanation:
The main advantage that Municipal Bonds usually carry with them is that they are tax-exempt. As no taxes are paid on them, there is no need to calculate an after-tax return because it is the same as a pre-tax return.
After-Tax return on Municipal Bond = 7%
The Corporate Bond is subject to tax based on the holder's tax bracket.
After-Tax Return on Corporate Bond = 8.4 % * ( 1 - 20%)
After-Tax Return on Corporate Bond = 6.72%
<em>Considering taxes, the Municipal Bond is better. </em>
Answer:
intangible assets
market value of assets
extra earning power
Explanation:
As an accounting principle, going concern value means the value of a business or its assets considering that the business will continue to operate in the reasonable future. This is the opposite to the value assigned to assets or businesses that are being discarded or liquidated.
When you are trying to valuate a company, you have to consider the fair market value of its assets, its intangible assets, and its earning power (its ability to make higher than average profits).
The past share price is not useful in determining the present of the company and the value of future investments cannot be included until the investments are carried out.
Answer:
The 50.30 days are required to take its credit customers to pay for their purchases.
Explanation:
For computing the average collection period, we have to use the formula of the average collection period.
Average collection period = Average accounts receivable ÷ Credit sales × total number of days in a year
= $107,900 ÷ $783,000 × 365
= 0.13780 × 365
= 50.30 days
We assume 365 days in a year
The cost of goods sold is irrelevant. Thus, it is not considered in the computation part.
Hence, 50.30 days are required to take its credit customers to pay for their purchases.
Answer:
The correct answer is C. M1 plus near monies.
Explanation:
The liquidity approach emphasizes the role of money as a store of value and downplays the role it plays as a means of payment. To assess the amount of money emphasizes that the essentially distinctive property of money is that it is the most liquid of assets.
The strict money supply or circulating medium (M1), which defines money as the money in the hands of the public and demand deposits (DV) is the usual most accepted formula as money. Therefore, money in the strict sense is listed as such in the monetary statistics of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and many other financial institutions around the world.
