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Gre4nikov [31]
3 years ago
12

Help!! @mathmate help needed! I need step by step please

Mathematics
1 answer:
tangare [24]3 years ago
5 0
Since \sin^2x+\cos^2x=1 for all x, you can write as a first step

\dfrac{\cos^2\theta\tan^2\theta}{1-\sin^2\theta}=\dfrac{\cos^2\theta\tan^2\theta}{\cos^2\theta}

Then for \cos\theta\neq0, you can eliminate both factors of \cos^2\theta in the numerator and denominator to end up with \tan^2\theta.
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