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Serjik [45]
3 years ago
9

How many ways can you make 65 cents using nickels dimes and quarters

Mathematics
1 answer:
Neporo4naja [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

14 ways in all.

Step-by-step explanation:

A. If you use 2 quarters, you have to make the remaining 15� with either no

dimes or 1 dime and the rest in nickels.

That's 2 ways.

B. If you use 1 quarter, you have to make the remaining 40� with either no

dimes, 1 dime, 2 dimes, 3 dimes or 4 dimes and the rest, if any, in nickels.

That's 5 more ways.  

C. If you don't use any quarters, you have to make the entire 65� with either

0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 or 6 dimes and the rest in nickels.

That's 7 more ways.  2+5+7 = 14 ways in all.

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Fill in the blank with a number to make the expression a perfect square.
Mariana [72]

Answer: 36

Step-by-step explanation: We can actually mental math this question, since perfect squares are squares obviously, 6 squared is <u>36</u>. Hope this helps, 15402256!

3 0
3 years ago
Solve for xxx. Your answer must be simplified. -4+x≤9
Degger [83]

Answer:

x≤13

Step-by-step explanation:

-4+x≤9

Add 4 to each side

-4+4+x≤9+4

x≤13

5 0
2 years ago
The table below represents a linear function f(x) and the equation represents a function g(x):
Novosadov [1.4K]

Part A: The slope of f(x) is three times as great as the slope of g(x).

Part B: The y-intercept of g(x) is 12 larger than the y-intercept of f(x).

In order to find these two answers, you need to find a model for f(x). You can do that by first finding the slope. The formula is below.

slope (m) = (y2 - y1)/(x2 - x1)

In this equation (x1, y1) is the first point and (x2, y2) is a second point. For this purpose, we'll pick (1, 0) and (0, -6)

slope (m) = (-6 - 0)/(0 - 1)

m = -6/-1

m = 6

Now we know that the slope is 6, which is 3 times as great as the first slope. Now to find the y-intercept, we can use either point and the slope in slope intercept form.

y = mx + b

0 = 6(1) + b

0 = 6 + b

-6 = b

So we know the y-intercept is -6, which is 12 less than the y-intercept of g(x).

7 0
3 years ago
What is the manipulative inverse of -1/3
Mkey [24]

Answer:

1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

The inverse is the opposite of a number.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A wheel has 10 equally sized slices numbered from 1 to 10.
Ksenya-84 [330]

The random probability of event X, wheel stopping on a white slice is 0.9 while the probability of not X, wheel stopping on Grey slice is 0.1

  • Total numbers on wheel = total possible outcomes = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}

  • Grey colored portion = {3}

  • White colored portion = {1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}

  • X = Event that wheel stops on a white slice

  • P(X) = number of white slices ÷ total number of slices

  • P(X) = 9 / 10 = 0.9

  • P(not X) = 1 - P(X)

  • P(not X) = 1 - 0.9 = 0.1

Therefore, the probability that wheel stops on a white slice is 0.9 while, the probability that wheel does not stop on a white slice is 0.1

Learn more :brainly.com/question/18153040

4 0
3 years ago
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