We will use Binomial Distribution in this case.
Since the coin is tossed 15 times. N which is the number of trails will be 15.
P = Probability of heads
Q = Probability of tails
X = No. heads occurring in each toss.
So, now we have to find the probability for exactly 10 heads.
P(x = 10) = C(15, 10) P^x Q^N-x
C(15, 10) (1/2)^10 (1/2)^5 = 0.0916
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Im not sure but i think its either 19.50$ or 20$
ANSWER

EXPLANATION
The given function is

We need to find the inverse of this function,
Let

We interchange x an y to obtain,

We solve for y now to obtain,

We divide through by m to get,

Hence the inverse function is ,

For this inverse to exist, the denominator must not be equal to zero,
Thus

The correct answer is A.
Answer:
C. Symetrey
If you cut the picture in half, both sides are Exaactly the same.
Hope this helped!
~Lunar Rose. Moon
Step-by-step explanation:
In one year
1 + (23/100) = (1 + x)^12
1 + 0.23 = (1 + x)^12
(1 + x)^12 = 1.23
1 + x = 1.23^(1/12)
x = 1.23^(1/12) - 1
x =~ 0.017400841772181508280113627030242
That's about 1.74% per month (which is about 20.881% per year), compounded monthly, to equal 23% per year, compounded annually.
So I believe you can write
<span>I=(1+.0174<span>)<span>12t</span></span></span>or<span><span>I=<span>1.0174<span>12t</span></span></span></span>