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Lunna [17]
3 years ago
12

An insurance company divides its customers into 2 groups. twenty percent of customersare in the high-risk group, and eighty perc

ent are in the low-risk group. the high-riskcustomers make an average of 1 accident per year while the low-risk customers make anaverage of 0.1 accidents per year. eric had no accidents last year. what is the probabilitythat he is a high-risk driver?
Business
1 answer:
Lady_Fox [76]3 years ago
6 0
If Eric had no accidents than he would be classified as a low risk driver.
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Occurs when people give up something in order to receive something that they would rather have?
kap26 [50]
That would probably be trade. :)
3 0
3 years ago
A financial analyst is in the process of reviewing four investments projects for one of his clients. The net present cash values
inysia [295]

Answer:

Consider the following calculation

Explanation:

All projects having positive NPVs, thus all projects are feasible.

(All figures are in $' million)

Funds required to invest in all projects are

First year = 6 + 2 + 4 + 10 = 22 & available fund for first year is only 20.

Second year = 8 + 4 + 8 + 6 = 36 & available fund for second year is only 13.

In these type of situations we use Profitability Index to decide which projects are selected and which are to be skipped.

Profitablilty index = PV of cash inflow/ PV of cash outflows

But in this such information is not given to calculate Profitability index, thus we are calculating here NPV per One $ of investment.

thus NPV per One $ of investment = NPV of project / Investment in Project

Note: We are taking here value of investment in project for both two year with out taking effect of time value of money as no discount rate is provided in the question.

CHECK THE EXCEL ATTACHED

Total fund available with investor = 20+13 = 33

Total fund required for Project 4 & Project 1= 16 + 14 =30

thus he can invest in only project 4 & Project 1, for investing in next profitable project i.e. project 2 he requires $6 million but he has only $3 million in his hands.

Thus the optimal solution for the client is to invest in Project 4 & Project 1.

Thus Funds available in first year = 20, Investment in First year = 10+6 = 16, Funds remains in hand =4

Funds available in second year = 4+ 13= 17, Investment in second year =6+8= 14, funds remains in hand = 3

NPV from total investment = 80 + 50 = 130

Download xlsx
5 0
3 years ago
Target profit is $100,000; fixed overhead costs are $120,000 and fixed selling and administrative costs are $50,000. If total va
vlada-n [284]

Answer:

40%

Explanation:

The markup percentage to the variable cost using the variable cost method can be obtained by dividing the addition of the target profit and total fixed cost by the total variable cost as follows:

Total fixed cost = Fixed overhead costs + Fixed selling and administrative costs = $120,000 + $50,00 = $170,000

The markup percentage to the variable cost = (Target profit + Total fixed cost) / Total variable cost = ($100,000 + $170,000) / $675,000 = $270,000 / $675,000 = 0.40, or 40%.

Therefore, the markup percentage to the variable cost using the variable cost method is 40%.

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is an implicit cost in Jim's business venture?
lozanna [386]

Answer:

D) i and iii

Explanation:

Implicit cost refers to economic costs that are not directly attributed to the business but are nevertheless important in making informed decisions. In this case the opportunity costs are implicit cost. They are:

  • Salary forgone which should have been earned at another job, and
  • Interest lost from savings account.  
3 0
3 years ago
Suppose the own price elasticity of demand for good X is −0.5, and the price of good X increases by 10 percent. What would you e
nexus9112 [7]

Answer:

a 10% increase in price will reduce the demand and total expenditures on good X by 5%.

Explanation:

<em>Price elasticity of demand(PED) is the degree of responsiveness of demand to a change in price.</em>

<em>Where a percentage change in price produces a more than a proportional change in quantity, we say the product is</em><em> price elastic.</em><em> On the other hand, where a change in price produces a less than a proportional change in quantity demand, then demand is </em><em>price inelastic</em>

PED is computed as follows:

PED = % change in quantity /% change in Price

So we can apply this formula to this question

0.5 = m/10

m = 0.5 × 10

m = 5.

m= 5%

From the computation above , it is deduced that a 10% increase in price will reduce the demand and total expenditures on good X by 5%.

5 0
3 years ago
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