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3 years ago

Please please help me

Mathematics

1 answer:

babymother [125]3 years ago

7 0

Yes.

The triangle inequality theorem states that a triangle is possible if the sum of two sides is larger than the 3rd side.

In this case, the sides are 4, 5 and 6.

4+5 is bigger than 6

4 + 6 is bigger than 5

5 + 6 is bigger than 4.

The sum of any 2 sides is always larger than the 3rd side, so this triangle is possible.

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Answer: <u>Yes</u>

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4 years ago

According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), up to 20% of Americans contract the influenza virus each year,

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Answer:

(1) a. 0.0009

(2) d. 0.640

(3)

a. P(A and B) = 0.06.
b. P(A or B) = 0.70.

(4)Not disjoint

(5) a. nearly 0.

(6)b. 0.919

Step-by-Step Explanation:

(1)Probability of a baby being born with a birth defect =3%=0.03

The probability that both babies have birth defects=0.03 X 0.03= 0.0009.

(2)The probability of contracting the influenza virus each year = 20%=0.2

Therefore, the probability of not contracting the influenza virus =1-0.2=0.8

The probability that neither baby catches the flu in a given year:

=0.8 X 0.8

=0.64

(3)

P(A)=0.1

P(B)=0.6

P(A or B)=P(A)+P(B)=0.1 + 0.6 =0.7

P(A and B)=P(A)XP(B)=0.1 X 0.6 =0.06

(4)

P(A)=0.2

P(B)=0.9

Event A and B cannot be disjoint.

(5)

The probability of an American woman aged 20 to 24 having Chlamydia infection $=\dfrac{2791.5}{100000}$

The probability that three randomly selected women in this age group have the infection

$=\dfrac{2791.5}{100000} \times \dfrac{2791.5}{100000} \times \dfrac{2791.5}{100000} \\\\=0.00002175\\\approx 0$

(6)The probability of an American woman aged 20 to 24 not having Chlamydia infection $=1-\dfrac{2791.5}{100000}$

The probability that three randomly selected women in this age group do not have the infection

$=\left(1-\dfrac{2791.5}{100000}\right)^3\\\\=0.9186\\\approx 0.919$

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4 years ago

The operation manager at a tire manufacturing company believes that the mean mileage of a tire is 48,637 miles, with a variance

Brut [27]

Answer:

$P(x < -778) = 0$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

$\bar x = 48673$

$\sigma^2 = 11282880$

$n = 143$

Required

$P(x$

First, we calculate the z score

$z = \frac{x}{\sqrt{\sigma^2}/n}$

So, we have:

$z = \frac{-778}{\sqrt{11282880}/143}$

$z = \frac{-778}{3359.0/143}$

$z = \frac{-778}{23.49}$

$z = -33.12$

So:

$P(x < -778) = P(z < -33.12)$

From z score probability, we have:

$P(x < -778) = 0$

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3 years ago