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olga_2 [115]
3 years ago
12

Please answer that question

Business
1 answer:
SOVA2 [1]3 years ago
7 0
1) agree 2)agree 3)disagree 4) disagree 5) agree 6) agree 7) agree 8) agree
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In the open-economy macroeconomic model, if a country’s supply of loanable funds shifts right, then
Contact [7]

Answer:

According to the situation given in the question, if a country's supply of loan able funds shift rights , then A) the net capital outflow will increase and so the exchange rate will fall.

Explanation:

According to the situation given in the question , the supply of funds available for loan, depends upon the national savings, so if there is high amounts of national savings available it means the funds are available for the borrowers, who are in need of funds for their investment projects. And the demand for funds available for loan comes from the domestic investment and net capital outflow.

If the supply of funds are high in the economy then obviously the interest rate will also come down and the net capital outflow will be more.  

4 0
3 years ago
What does the term "judgment-proof" imply about a debtor? A. He/she has defaulted on a mortgage B. He/she has not property subje
Ierofanga [76]

Answer:

He/She has no property subject to execution.

Explanation:

It is description of a person who doesn't have the assets for the creditor to seize when the court order requires the debt repayment. A broke and unemployed person is judgement proof. The debtor having few legally protected assets and income is also judgement proof. Judgment proof is also called the collection proof and is not permanent. The judgement are valid for many years, the creditors continue to collect whatever the judgement allows even after they have won a lawsuit against a delinquent customer.

8 0
2 years ago
Match the items below by entering the appropriate code letter in the space provided. Plant assets Book value Salvage value Strai
disa [49]

Answer:

1. Small expenditures which primarily benefit the current period. REVENUE EXPENDITURES

2. Cost less accumulated depreciation. BOOK VALUE

3. An accelerated depreciation method used for financial statement purposes. DOUBLE DECLINING BALANCE METHOD

4. Tangible resources that are used in operations and are not intended for resale. PLANT ASSETS

5. Equal amount of depreciation each period. STRAIGHT LINE METHOD

6. Expected cash value of the asset at the end of its useful life. SALVAGE VALUE

7. Process of allocating the cost of equipment over its service life. DEPRECIATION

8. Material expenditures that increase an asset's operating efficiency, productive capacity, or useful life CAPITAL EXPENDITURES

9. An accelerated depreciation method used for tax purposes. MACRS

10. Useful life is expressed in terms of units of production or expected use. UNITS OF ACTIVITY METHOD

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
A $10,000, 8 percent coupon bond that sells for $10,000 has a yield to maturity of
Illusion [34]

Answer:

A) 8 percent.

Explanation:

Coupon rate refers to the expected periodic earnings of a bond until its maturity. The coupon rate is expressed as a percentage of the par value or the face value of the bond. It is similar to the interest rate for other investments option.  A bond's coupon rate is, therefore, its interest rate.

A bond coupon rate represents its yearly earnings. However, most bonds will pay the interest twice per year. The bond issuer pays the bondholder regular and fixed interest until the bond matures. The coupon rate determines the bond's profitability. A bond with a higher coupon rate is more attractive to investors.

8 0
2 years ago
A 20-year maturity bond with par value $1,000 makes semiannual coupon payments at a coupon rate of 8%. a. Find the bond equivale
kipiarov [429]

Answer:

The answer is 4.26 percent

Explanation:

This is a semiannual paying coupon.

N(Number of periods) = 40 periods ( 20 years x 2)

I/Y(Yield to maturity) = ???

PV(present value or market price) = $950

PMT( coupon payment) = $40 ( [8 percent÷ 2] x $1,000)

FV( Future value or par value) = $1,000.

We are using a Financial calculator for this.

N= 40; PMT = 40; FV= $1,000; PV= -950 CPT I/Y = 4.26

Therefore, the bond's yield-to-maturity is 4.26 percent

7 0
3 years ago
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