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Nady [450]
3 years ago
15

Shimano Company makes a product that is expected to require 2 hours of labor per unit of product. The standard cost of labor is

$5.60. Shimano actually used 1.90 hours of labor per unit of product. The actual cost of labor was $5.50 per hour. Shimano made 1,400 units of product during the period. Based on this information alone, the labor price variance is: Multiple Choice $784 unfavorable. $266 favorable. $784 favorable. $266 unfavorable. Next Visit question mapQuestion 11 of 53 Total 11 of 53
Business
1 answer:
jeka943 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Labor price variance = $266 Favorable

Explanation:

Labor price variance = (Standard Price per hour - Actual Price per hour) \times Actual Hours

Standard Price per hour = $5.60

Actual Price per hour = $5.50

Actual hours = 1.90 for each unit

For 1,400 units = 1,400 \times 1.90 = 2,660

Therefore, variance = ($5.60 - $5.50) \times 2,660 = 266

Since the value is positive as because actual price was less than standard price the variance is favorable

Correct option is

$266 favorable

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The relationship between the future value of a single sum and the corresponding present value of a single sum is determined by t
Schach [20]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

interest rate per compounding period​ ; number of compounding periods

5 0
3 years ago
Lisa's opportunity cost rate is 10 percent compounded annually. how much must she deposit in an account today if she wants to re
Aleks04 [339]

Answer:

The answer would be, $21,760

Explanation:

The formula to be used is  that of calculating the present value (PV) of the payment in the ordinary annuity (PMT). PMT are done annually, semi-annually, quarterly or monthly.

PV = PMT * ((1-(1/ (1+r) n))/r)

Where PV is the present value; PMT is the payment in an ordinary annuity; r is the opportunity cost rate; n is the number of years  

in this case, PV= 3,200; r=10%, and n=12

To get PV, substitute the values given above and compute as shown below:

PV  = 3,200*((1-(1/(1+0.10)12))/0.10)

PV= $21,760

With an opportunity cost of 10% compounded annually, Lisa will have to deposit $21,760 today if she wants to be receiving $3,200 at the end of each year for the next 12 years.

5 0
3 years ago
Performance Bike Co. is a wholesaler of motorcycle supplies. An aging of the company's accounts receivable on December 31 and a
maw [93]

Answer:

$36,648

Explanation:

age                                      balance     % uncollectible           total

Not past due                   $890,000               3/4%                 $ 6,675

1-30 days past due           $97,900                   2%                   $ 1,958

31-60 days past due         $44,500                   6%                  $2,670

61-90 days past due         $32,000                 16%                  $ 5,120

91-180 days past due         $23,100                40%                 $ 9,240

<u>Over 180 days past due    $16,900                65%                $10,985  </u>

Total                                  $1,104,400                                    $36,648

journal entry should be:

December 31, 202x, bad debt expense

Dr Bad debt expense 36,648

    Cr Allowance for doubtful accounts 36,648

8 0
3 years ago
Which of the following statements is CORRECT? Question 9 options: The AFN equation for forecasting funds requirements requires o
EastWind [94]

AFN has negative and positive sides. The correct statement is A negative AFN indicates that retained earnings and spontaneous liabilities are far more than sufficient to finance the additional assets needed.

  • AFN is known as Projected increase in assets – spontaneous increase in liabilities – any increase in retained earnings.

When the AFN value is negative, it means the action or project that is underwork will bring about extra income for the company, which can be invested in another place.

Additional funds needed (AFN) is known as financial term used when a business intends to widen its operations.

Learn more About AFN from

brainly.com/question/13203205

3 0
3 years ago
A note receivable Mild Max Cycles discounted with recourse was dishonored on its maturity date. Mild Max would debit: A receivab
Leviafan [203]

Answer:

A receivable.

Explanation:

Mild Max Cycles had a notes receivables, which it already discounted with some financial institution, which later on the maturity date stand to be dishonored.

It is clear that the company earlier already collected the money against it, but now as the note receivable was discounted with recourse that is it provided assurance to the financial institution, in case of any failure, thus, the company will pay back to the financial institution and that the company still have the right to receive it back from the note receivable.

7 0
4 years ago
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