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Virty [35]
3 years ago
13

How did voting requirements change in the 1800’s

History
2 answers:
Korolek [52]3 years ago
8 0
Men didn't have to own land anymore to vote, also, political parties had nominating conventions to select candidates. Something else is that s<span>ome states extended suffrage to more Caucasian males. </span><span />
ANTONII [103]3 years ago
6 0
I may be wrong, but I do believe this may have to do with Andrew Jackson's election, and the voting requirements changed because you no longer had to own property or be wealthy to vote. The common, free white man could vote.
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shutvik [7]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Its well documented that religion played a major role in civilization from 1021 til today, The cathloic church was a major religious instituition back then even larger than it is now prodominating over most of europe.

To be honest Germanica the Middle of europe squabled over Prodistantism and Cathloicism til the 1600s same goes italy.

4 0
3 years ago
Extra points*
noname [10]
<span>Had no power of taxation remained with the states. However, Congress had the power to maintain military forces, declare war, coin currency, handle Indian affairs and create a postal service.</span>
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- What were the internal and external causes of the downfall of Kievan Rus?
zzz [600]

Answer: Kievan Rus is also called as the land of Rus. It is located in Russia.

Explanation:

The internal cause of the down fall: The empire weaken by the collapse of the commercial trade with the Byzantine empire and this lead to major economic crises in 12th century.

The various rival regional powers were influencing the working of the state.

The external cause of the down fall: The Mongol invasion in 1240s caused the complete fall of the state.

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devlian [24]

Answer:

D. oklahoma

Explanation:

i did the question and that is right may i have brainlest

3 0
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