Answer: 1. a. The existence of a no-fault law.
2. d. $17,000
Explanation:
1. For Jane to prove that Famous was indeed negligent, she definitely does not need the No - Fault law. This is a law that is mostly applicable to motor vehicle accidents and means that the individual parties are responsible for whatever injuries they sustain and the person who actually caused the accident is irrelevant. The main aim of this is to reduce the damages claims that one can be put on Insurance which increase insurance premiums.
<em>If this law was to be applied here, Jane would</em> <em>be responsible for her own injuries and her suit would fail. </em>
2. Jane missed 2 weeks of work and in each week she earns $5,000.
She also had medical expenses of $4,000 and estimated pain and suffering of $3,000.
The general damages therefore are the two weeks she missed plus the medical expenses and the pain and suffering.
= 5,000 ( 2) + 4,000 + 3,000
= 10,000 + 7,000
= $17,000
Risk retention is good for the company as the good has the better strategies planned about the product mix and if the things changed in the future the company is able to conquer the loss.
<h3>What is product mix?</h3>
Product mix is the total number of products sell by the particular company, the products can be further divided into the categories and division. Many big companies have the different line products like the cosmetics, glasses, home materials and others.
Thus, Risk retention is good for the company as the good has the better strategies
For more details about Product mix, click here:
brainly.com/question/17463487
#SPJ1
The statement " It eliminates the inflows of cash earned following the payback period and time value of money" is the disadvantage of the payback method
The payback period is the period thats tells the time period in which the initial investment that was made should be recovered.
It is to be measured in years normally.
For finding the disadvantage, we need to find out the following information related payback period
- It is easy to calculate
- The cash flows earned after the payback period should not be used
- There is no requirement to determine the present value factor for measuring the payback period.
- Also, it does not use for distinct cheap projects from lower ones
So this is the reason this method ignored the times value of money
Therefore, we can conclude that, the correct option is b.
Learn more about the payback method here: brainly.com/question/16255939
Answer:
B. Credit to the fair value adjustment for $6000
Explanation:
December 31 (year 2)
Fair value adjustment account balance = $10,000 (Debit)
December 31 (year 3)
Fair value adjustment account balance = $154,000 - $150,000 =$4,000 (Debit)
As you can see in year 2 there were only $10,000 (debit) in fair value adjustment account but in year 3 the value dropped down to 4,000 debit which leads us to the journal entry of $6,000 Credit in fair value adjustment account balance
