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storchak [24]
3 years ago
10

Which of the following is the mathematical representation of Boyle's law?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Ratling [72]3 years ago
3 0
The mathematical representation of Boyle's law is P1V1 = P2V2. The answer to your question is C. I hope that this is the answer that you were looking for and it has helped you.
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Marcus boxers dog 3/5 of a mile every day how far does Marcus walk his dog 6 days
lina2011 [118]
Marcus walks 3.5 miles
6 0
3 years ago
a container of coffee is 1/6 full.The container contains 2/3 of a pound of coffee.write division expression that represents the
zimovet [89]

Answer:

capacity of the container is 4 pound

Step-by-step explanation:

We have given that a container of the coffee is \frac{1}{6} full

And it contains \frac{2}{3} of a pound so \frac{2}{3} pound

It means \frac{1}{6} f of container contain  \frac{2}{3}  pound coffee

So capacity of the container is \frac{\frac{2}{3}}{\frac{1}{6}}=4pound

So capacity of the container is 4 pound

8 0
3 years ago
Write in full text, no files plz.
slava [35]

Answer:

108 student tickets, and 176 adult tickets were sold.

I hope I helped, and thanks for the points!

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
Binomial (x - 6) and trinomial (-2x2 + x + 9) are the factors of which of the
djyliett [7]

Answer:

Option (3)

Step-by-step explanation:

If binomial (x - 6) and trinomial (-2x² + x + 9) are the factors of a polynomial then their multiplication will be equal to the polynomial.

(x - 6)(-2x² + x + 9) = x(-2x² + x + 9) - 6(-2x² + x + 9)

                              = -2x³ + x² + 9x + 12x² - 6x - 54

                              = -2x³ + 13x² + 3x - 54

Therefore, Option (3) will be the correct option.

8 0
3 years ago
Fill in the blanks below to make a true statement. In a binomial experiment with n trials and probability of success p, if np (1
Sergeu [11.5K]

Answer:

\mu_{x}=np

\sigma^2_{X}=np(1-p)

Step-by-step explanation:

∵ When x is a random variable having distribution B(n, p), then for sufficiently large value of n, the following random variable has a standard normal distribution,

\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\sim N(0,1)

Where,

\mu=np

\sigma^2=np(1-p)

Here the variable X has a binomial distribution,

Such that, np (1 - p) ≥ 10 ⇒ n is sufficiently large.

Where, n is the total numbers of trials, p is success in each trials,

So, the mean of variable X is,

\mu_{X} = np

And, variance of variable X is,

\sigma^2{X}=np(1-p)

3 0
3 years ago
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