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Vaselesa [24]
3 years ago
14

Juan works at Texas Burgers in El Paso and earns $8.00 per hour. His twin brother Felipe works in Mexico Burgers in Ciudad Juare

z just across the border and earns $3.00 per hour for exactly the same work. An economist looking at this situation sees:
A.an incentive for Felipe to cross the border to get a job and thus reduce the gap.
B. an incentive for Felipe to quit and find another job in Mexico.
C. the tendency of the rich to get richer and the poor to get poorer, widening the gap.
D. evidence that the law of one price has no support in the real world.
Business
1 answer:
Vesna [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

A.an incentive for Felipe to cross the border to get a job and thus reduce the gap.

Explanation:

Economists are concerned with the efficient use of resources to achieve maximum benefits. Economics is about making choices that add the greatest value to society. An economist will consider the opportunity cost associated with an option before making a decision.

The wage rate in Texas, where Juan works is much higher compared to what Felipe earns. Felipe can gain more by offering his labor service in Texas, which is just across the border. Economists will consider the earnings per hour, and judge than Felipe will be better off working in Texas compared to Mexico.

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Suppose equilibrium savings equals $750 billion, and equilibrium GDP equals $3,500 billion. Investment spending rises to $900 bi
aleksandr82 [10.1K]

Answer:

Multiplier = 3.33

Explanation:

Investment / Spending Multiplier denotes increase in Income multiple times increase in causal Investment.

Multiplier = Change in Income / Change in Investment = 1 / 1 - MPC

<em>M</em> = ΔY/ΔI = 1/ (1-MPC)

At Equilibrium, Investment = Savings = 750. Change in Investment = 900 - 750 = 150. Change in Income = 500.

M = 500/150 = 3.33

3.33 = 1/(1-MPC)

MPC = 0.70

7 0
3 years ago
Sales at a fast-food restaurant average $6,000 per day. The restaurant decided to introduce an advertising campaign to increase
kipiarov [429]

Answer:

Yes

Explanation:

The 0.01 percent of the deviation plus the 0.01 percent of the sales average is not enough to get to the $6,300 daily, which means that the factor of the increase sales is the advertising campaign.

4 0
3 years ago
A corporation had a change in net working capital of $40,000 this year. At the end of the year the balance sheet showed $150,000
FinnZ [79.3K]

Answer:

\large\boxed{\large\boxed{\$ 110,000}}

Explanation:

<em>Net working capital</em> is the difference between the current assets and the current liabilities:

          Net\text{ }working\text{ }capital=Current\text{ }assets-Current\text{ }liabilities

<em><u>Change in the net working capital</u></em><u> (ΔNWC = </u><em><u>$40,000</u></em><u>)</u>

        \Delta NWC=\Delta\text{Current assets}-\Delta\text{Current liabilities}

        \Delta\text{Current assets}=\$ 150,000-\$ 120,000=\$ 30,000        

         \Delta\text{Current liabilities}=\$ 100,000-x

          \$ 40,000=\$ 30,000-(\$ 100,000-x)

          x=\$ 40,000-\$ 30,000+\$ 100,000=\$ 110,000

7 0
3 years ago
P19 - 104. in applying the lower of cost or market method to inventory valuation, market is defined as:
vlabodo [156]
<span>lower-of-cost-or-market It is inconsistent because losses are recognized but not gains. b. It usually understates assets. c. It can increase future income. "market" in the lower-of-cost-or-market rule be more than estimated selling price in the ordinary course of business less reasonably predictable costs of completion and disposal. Designated market value is always the middle value of replacement cost, net realizable value, and net realizable value less a normal profit margin Lower-of-cost-or-market is most conservative if applied to individual items of inventory. the rationale behind the ceiling when applying the lower-of-cost-or-market method to inventory is to prevent overstatement of the value of obsolete or damaged inventories.</span>
8 0
3 years ago
A Parent Company owns 100% of its Subsidiary. During 2018, the Parent company reports net income (by itself, without any investm
marusya05 [52]

Answer:

$2,593,000

Explanation:

The computation of consolidated net income is shown below:-

cancellation of excess of Interest expenses over Income = Interest expense - Interest income

= $80,000 - $37,000

= $43,000

Consolidated net income = Parent company Income + Subsidiary Income + cancellation of excess of Interest expenses over Income

= $1,850,000 + $700,000 + $43,000

= $2,593,000

So, for computing the consolidated net income we simply applied the above formula.

6 0
3 years ago
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