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3 years ago

A recipe requires 31 cup of milk for each 41 cup of water. How

Mathematics

1 answer:

avanturin [10]3 years ago

6 0

Step-by-step explanation:

here,

31 cup of milk require 41 cup of water.

1 cup of milk require 41/31 cup of water.

so, 41/31 cup of water is required for 1 cup of milk.

hope u get it..

You might be interested in

Crisps normal price £1.43 three for the price of two what is the total of 6 packets

Anettt [7]

Answer:

3 packs equal the price of two, therefore 1.43•2= 2.86

and 6 packs equal the price of 4, so 2.86•2= 5.72

7 0

3 years ago

Any kind of clue please need help on this

Nikolay [14]

Similar polygons are made through scaling either by stretching or squeezing the sides all by a common ratio. Here, the size changes. Congruent polygons are made by shifting or reflecting their position. Here, the size does not change.

Choice A has a dilution (or squeezing) and a translation (shifting). That makes similar polygons.

Choice B has a rotation. Nope.

Choice C has a shifting and a reflection. Nope.

Choice D has a rotation and shifting. Nope.

Thus choice A is best.

7 0

3 years ago

Stephen is using a map to plan a hike. The map is based on a scale of 1:40,000, in cm. If the route is 10 cm on the map, how man

kvasek [131]

1/40,000 = h/10
40,000h = 10
h = 10/40,000
h = 1/4,000

5 0

3 years ago

An article reports that 1 in 500 people carry the defective gene that causes inherited colon cancer. In a sample of 2500 individ

Ne4ueva [31]

Answer:

The approximate distribution of the number who carry this gene is approximately normal with mean $\mu = 5$ and standard deviation $\sigma = 2.23$

Step-by-step explanation:

For each person, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they carry the defective gene that causes inherited colon cancer, or they do not. The probability of a person carrying this gene is independent from other people. So the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

A sample of 2500 individuals is quite large, so we use the binomial approximation to the normal to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.

Can be approximated to a normal distribution, using the expected value and the standard deviation.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

$E(X) = np$

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

$\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}$

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed samples can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean $\mu$ and standard deviation $\sigma$ , the zscore of a measure X is given by:

$Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}$

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

When we are approximating a binomial distribution to a normal one, we have that $\mu = E(X)$ , $\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)}$ .