The probabilities of knocking down zero, one, and two pins are

and

, respectively. The total probability of knocking down at most two is thus

, or

.
Answer:
C.
Step-by-step explanation:
Well if 1 is blue and 2 is tan and 3 is blue and across from 1.
Then 4 will be tan because it is across from 2 which is tan.
C.
Answer:
The answer is 256
.
Step-by-step explanation:
To solve for the volume of the sphere, start by using the sphere volume formula, which is V =
. However, in this formula, 3 will be used instead of (
).
Next, plug in the information given from the problem, and the formula will look like V =
(3) (
).
Then, solve the equation, and the answer will be 256
.
X=1/2
Alternative: 0.5 or 2^-1