Answer:
$1 or 100% of the tax
Explanation:
When the price elasticity of demand is 0, it means that the good or service will be purchased regardless of its cost. Very few things have such a low price elasticity, and the fact that this is drug for treating cancer is the reason why that happens. Anyone that can purchase a drug that will keep you alive, will do so as long as you have enough money to do so. Another good with a very low price elasticity, but not 0, is gasoline with a 0.02 to 0.04, and gasoline is a basic necessity also.
The curve for a perfectly inelastic good is vertical. So any increase in taxes will be paid by the customers.
Use this equation: FVN= $2 = $1(1 + I)N= $1(1.20)<span>N (With any dollar amount)
</span>The exact answer is 3.8 years, but some calculators will round this value up to the next highest whole number, so maybe 4 years.
Answer:
The differences between US GAAP and IFRS pose an extra cost because international corporations must prepare two separate accounting statements. But besides that, other potential risks include paying higher taxes than what the companies should pay int their home countries and the uncertainty generated by changing rules.
Not only do current tax rates affect potential investments, e.g. currently companies in the US pay relatively low corporate taxes (Tax Cuts and Jobs Act of 2017) but these benefits end on 2025. But also different methods for valuating physical assets and R&D costs can represent higher than expected taxes. E.g. depending on a company's needs, it may be beneficial to expense all R&D costs right away, or maybe it would be better to capitalize some of them after technical feasibility is achieved (IFRS).
The main advantage of having uniform rules (e.g. UCC) is that all the companies know exactly what to expect and how to act. Certainty decreases risk, and less risk reduces costs.
Explanation:
In the US, the vast majority of firms use US GAAP as their accounting method, but around the world the IFRS method is used.
Physical asset valuation is the process of determining the value of your physical assets including P, P & E, and also inventories.
- When valuing inventories IFRS uses FIFO, while US GAAP allows FIFO, LIFO or weighted average costing methods. US GAAP also values inventory at lesser of cost or market value, while IFRS values inventory at lesser of cost or net realizable value.
- US GAAP uses the cost method to determine the historic cost of an asset, while IFRS uses basically the same method but does not include all the costs of location of the assets (e.g. cost of removing or clearing a facility).
- US GAAP recognizes non-monetary exchanges while IFRS doesn't.
- IFRS also allows the cost of asset to be revalued, which can result in unrealized gains or losses. The US GAAP only considers historic costs.
- There are also other minor differences regarding depreciation, disposals and impairment rules.
Research and development must be expensed right away under US GAAP, while IFRS basically requires the same, it allows some capitalization of development expenditures if certain criteria is met (technical feasibility is achieved).
The answer is user-generated media!
Hope this helps you :)
Answer:
Dr Interest expense $4,000
Dr Notes payable $1,120
Explanation:
The $5,120 repaid comprised of both interest and principal repayments,hence there is need for the amount to be split into the two appropriate accounts.
The interest payable on the loan on yearly basis ,based on the outstanding loan balance of $50,000 is $4,000(8%*$50,000),hence the balance of $1,120($5,120-$4,000) represents the actual repayment of principal,as a result the notes payable account should be debited with $1,120.
