Answer: Sarah has a higher opportunity cost of laundering her clothes than Harold does.
Explanation:
The opportunity cost is the cost of choosing an option out of a set of available options to an individual. Sarah is wealthier than Harold, therefore sending her clothes to the laundry is easier for her than it is for Harold, therefore Sarah has a higher opportunity cost than John doing laundry, because she can easily pay to get the Job done, which is not the case for John.
People will eventually start cutting back on their spending since increased interest rates result in greater borrowing costs. Then, when the demand for goods and services declines, so does inflation.
Interest and other expenses incurred by an entity in conjunction with borrowing money are referred to as borrowing costs. An asset that requires a significant amount of time to prepare for use or sale qualifies as a qualifying asset.
A qualifying asset's cost includes borrowing expenses that are directly related to its purchase, construction, or production. The expense of other borrowing costs is recognized.
The fundamental tenet of IAS 23 Borrowing Costs is that if borrowing costs can be directly linked to the purchase, development, or production of a qualifying asset, they should be capitalized. Additional borrowing expenses are deducted from profit or loss.
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In this case, Yen is still considered to be liable with the accident and that she must provide the needs of the customer due to the injuries that the customer receives because even if Art is in charge with the shop, she is still considered to be the owner which makes her liable with the accident.
A. True, Yield to Maturity or called YTM is a measure of your annualized return if a bond, or all the bonds in a fund, are held to maturity.
Answer:
$14038
Explanation:
The company has marginal revenue R'(t) = 
. Therefore its revenue R(t) is given as;
R(t) = ∫R'(t)
R(t)= ∫ dt = + c
R(t) = + c
But R(0) = 0, therefore:
R(0) = 
+ c = 0
+ c = 0
100 + c =0
c = -100
Also the marginal cost per day is given by C'(t) = 140 - 0.3t
C'(t) = 140 - 0.3t
C(t) = ∫C(t) = ∫ (140 - 0.3t) dt = 140t - (0.3/2) t² + C
But C(0) = 0
C(0) = 140 (0) - (0.3/2)(0)² + c = 0
c = 0
C(0) = 140t - (0.3/2) t²
Profit P(t) = R(T) - C(T) , hence the total profit from t = 0 to t = 5 is given as:
P(t) = ![\int\limits^0_5 {[R'(t)-C'(t)]} \, dt =\int\limits^0_5 {([100e^t-(140-0.3t)]} \, dt=\int\limits^0_5 {100e^t} \, dt +\int\limits^0_5 {-0.3t} \, dt +\int\limits^0_5 {-140} \, dt \\\\=[100e^t]_0^5+[ -140t]_0^5+[-0.3t^2/2]_0^5=[14841.316-100]+[-700]+[-3.75]=14038](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cint%5Climits%5E0_5%20%7B%5BR%27%28t%29-C%27%28t%29%5D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%20%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E0_5%20%7B%28%5B100e%5Et-%28140-0.3t%29%5D%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%3D%5Cint%5Climits%5E0_5%20%7B100e%5Et%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%20%20%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E0_5%20%7B-0.3t%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%20%20%2B%5Cint%5Climits%5E0_5%20%7B-140%7D%20%5C%2C%20dt%20%20%5C%5C%5C%5C%3D%5B100e%5Et%5D_0%5E5%2B%5B%20-140t%5D_0%5E5%2B%5B-0.3t%5E2%2F2%5D_0%5E5%3D%5B14841.316-100%5D%2B%5B-700%5D%2B%5B-3.75%5D%3D14038)
The profit is $14038
