The actual inverse function is:
And the domain is [0, ∞).
<h3>
Where is the mistake?</h3>
Remember that for a given function f(x) with a domain D and a range R.
For the inverse function, f⁻¹(x) the domain is R and the range is D.
Here, for the given function the domain is x ≥ 3 and the range is [0, ∞).
Then for the inverse function, which is:
(to check this, you must have that):
The domain will be [0, ∞) and the range x ≥ 3
If you want to learn more about inverse functions:
brainly.com/question/14391067
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This is a true statement.
Consider two events A and B. We say they are complementary if P(A)+P(B) = 1
This means that either event A or event B must happen, since the "1" represents 100% probability. Having a probability of 100% means absolute certainty.
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Example:
A = the event it rains
B = the event it does not rain
P(A) = 0.30 = 30% chance of rain
P(B) = 0.70 = 70% chance it does not rain
P(A)+P(B) = 0.30+0.70 = 1
So this shows the two events are complementary.
To solve this problem you must apply the proccedure shown below:
1. Let's round the value to the nearest hundredth. As you can see, the digit 8 is in the thousandths place and is greater than 5, therefore, you must round up to 0.038.
2. Now express the value as a single digit times a power of 10, as following:
x
Therefore, the answer is: x
Answer:
Each orange would cost $0.64.
Step-by-step explanation:
If you do 3.84 and divide that by 6, you would get the answer of $0.64 for each orange.
The blank is -8 because -6 +-8=-14+-3=-17.
