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Strike441 [17]
3 years ago
11

Imagine a model shaded to show 0.001 How much would be shaded?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Dahasolnce [82]3 years ago
5 0
A model being 0.001 shaded would be 0.1% or 1/1000 of the whole model. 1 would equal the whole model being shaded, but that’s not the case. Instead, it’s in the thousandths, so that’s 1/1000 or 0.1% of the whole model shaded.
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What is the probability of drawing a 9 of spades from a 52-card deck given the deck is properly shuffled?
avanturin [10]
1.923% (Roughly)

You can get this by dividing 1 by 52 to find the likelihood. <span />
4 0
3 years ago
Graph the following piecewise function:
zhenek [66]
Check the picture below.

notice the solid circle at -4 and 3, since it includes those points.

also notice the dashed line, though the lines keeps on going those ways, is not included in the piece-wise, since it's not part fo the domain or constraints.

5 0
3 years ago
15 3/4% is equal to which decimal?<br><br> A- 0.1575<br> B- 157.25<br> C-15.25<br> D- 15.34
eimsori [14]
15 3/4% = 15.75%
15.75% = 0.1575
The answer is A.
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can you please answer the question?
Roman55 [17]

The <em>trigonometric</em> expression \frac{\tan^{2} \alpha}{\tan \alpha - 1} + \frac{\cot^{2} \alpha}{\cot \alpha - 1} is equivalent to the <em>trigonometric</em> expression \sec \alpha \cdot \csc \alpha + 1.

<h3>How to prove a trigonometric equivalence</h3>

In this problem we must prove that <em>one</em> side of the equality is equal to the expression of the <em>other</em> side, requiring the use of <em>algebraic</em> and <em>trigonometric</em> properties. Now we proceed to present the corresponding procedure:

\frac{\tan^{2} \alpha}{\tan \alpha - 1} + \frac{\cot^{2} \alpha}{\cot \alpha - 1}

\frac{\tan^{2}\alpha}{\tan \alpha - 1} + \frac{\frac{1}{\tan^{2}\alpha} }{\frac{1}{\tan \alpha} - 1 }

\frac{\tan^{2}\alpha}{\tan \alpha - 1} - \frac{\frac{1 }{\tan \alpha} }{\tan \alpha - 1}

\frac{\frac{\tan^{3}\alpha - 1}{\tan \alpha} }{\tan \alpha - 1}

\frac{\tan^{3}\alpha - 1}{\tan \alpha \cdot (\tan \alpha - 1)}

\frac{(\tan \alpha - 1)\cdot (\tan^{2} \alpha + \tan \alpha + 1)}{\tan \alpha\cdot (\tan \alpha - 1)}

\frac{\tan^{2}\alpha + \tan \alpha + 1}{\tan \alpha}

\tan \alpha + 1 + \cot \alpha

\frac{\sin \alpha}{\cos \alpha} + \frac{\cos \alpha}{\sin \alpha} + 1

\frac{\sin^{2}\alpha + \cos^{2}\alpha}{\cos \alpha \cdot \sin \alpha} + 1

\frac{1}{\cos \alpha \cdot \sin \alpha} + 1

\sec \alpha \cdot \csc \alpha + 1

The <em>trigonometric</em> expression \frac{\tan^{2} \alpha}{\tan \alpha - 1} + \frac{\cot^{2} \alpha}{\cot \alpha - 1} is equivalent to the <em>trigonometric</em> expression \sec \alpha \cdot \csc \alpha + 1.

To learn more on trigonometric expressions: brainly.com/question/10083069

#SPJ1

6 0
2 years ago
A locker combination has three nonzero digits and digits cannot be replaced. The first two digits are 9 and 8. What is the proba
Deffense [45]

Answer:

1 in 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Your one-digit choices: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9.

But they're nonzero, so: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9.

But they can't be repeated and 9 and 8 are used, so: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.

Only 7 numbers left, so chances are, 1 in 7.

8 0
3 years ago
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