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slava [35]
3 years ago
10

Eleanor paid an annual premium of $2,000 in total coverage for her homeowner's insurance, including $250,000 in damage coverage

and $250,000 in liability coverage. Six years into her policy, a tree fell on Eleanor's home and caused $40,000 worth of damage. Eleanor's insurance company paid the claim. Did the cost of the benefit of transferring the risk to the insurance company outweigh the cost of the premium? (5 points)
Yes, the cost of the annual premium for 10 years was more than the accident claims

Yes, the cost of the annual premium for 10 years was less than the accident claims

No, the cost of the annual premium for 10 years was the same as the accident claims

No, the cost of the annual premium for 10 years was more than the accident claims
Business
2 answers:
AysviL [449]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Yes, the cost of the annual premium for 10 years was less than the accident claims

Explanation:

lubasha [3.4K]3 years ago
3 0
The answer in this question is B Yes because the cost of the annual premium for 10 years was less than the accident claims. The cost of the insurance benefit of transferring the risk to the insurance company outweigh the cost of the premium because of the cost of the annual premium for 10 years was less than the accident claims.
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On July 1, 2014, Agincourt Inc. made two sales.
sesenic [268]

Answer:

Explanation:

Date                   Account title and Explanation     Debit      Credit

1st july-14                  Notes receivable             $1,393,591

                         Discount on notes receivable                                                                     ($1,393,591 - S600,100 - $317,900)                  $475,591

                                                Land                                           $600,100

                                   Gain on disposal of land                                                 `                        ($918,000 - $600,100)                               $317,900  `                                           (To record sale of land)

1-Jul-14

                                  Notes receivable                 $404,300

                                   Service revenue                                  $404,300

`                               (to record service revenue)

5 0
2 years ago
11. If you want to have a return for your Final Portfolio (that is invested between Optimal Risky portfolio and Risk Free Securi
melamori03 [73]

Answer:

Answer is explained in the explanation section.

Explanation:

Note: First of all, this question is incomplete and lacks necessary data to calculate this question. However, I have found the similar question on the internet with complete data given. Additionally, I have shared that data as well in the attachment below for your convenience, Thanks.

Solution:

SD = Standard Deviation

Using utility function, E(R) = Rp - 0.005 x A x SD^{2} = 1.34 - 0.005 x 3x 4.06^{2}

Using utility function, E(R) = 1.093%

If the weight in the risky portfolio is let's say, "a" then,

weight in the risk-free asset = 1 - a

So,

E(R) = a x Rp + (1 - a) x Rf

1.093% = a x 1.34% + (1 - a) x 0.50%

Solving for "a"

a = 70.56% - weight in risky portfolio

and 1 - a = 29.44% - weight in risk-free asset.

Similarly, if you want a return of 1.10%,

we can follow the above steps and get

1.1% = a x 1.34% + (1 - a) x 0.5%

Weight in risky portfolio,

a = 71.43%

weight in risk-free asset,

1 - a = 28.57%

5 0
2 years ago
The Chester Company has just purchased $40,900,000 of plant and equipment that has an estimated useful life of 15 years. Suppose
Lena [83]

Answer:

(B) $38,446,000

Explanation:

Assuming a linear depreciation model, depreciation will occur at the same rate each year. Since the total after 15 years is 90% of the original value, the percentage depreciated per year is given by:

P= \frac{90\%}{15} \\P=6\%

The book value (V) of this purchase after the first year will be:

V=\$40,900,000*(1-0.06)\\V=\$38,446,000

Therefore, the answer is (B) $38,446,000

3 0
3 years ago
Anthony Herrera recently fulfilled his long-time dream of opening a gym that offers spinning exercise classes for $5.42 per pers
Alik [6]

Answer:

(a) $3.48 per unit

(b) 64.2%

Explanation:

(a) Anthony’s contribution margin per unit:

= Selling price per unit - Variable cost per unit

= $5.42 - $1.94

= $3.48 per unit

Therefore, the Anthony’s contribution margin per unit is $3.48 per unit.

(b) Anthony's contribution margin ratio:

= (Contribution Margin Per unit ÷ Selling Price per unit) × 100

= ($3.48 per unit ÷ $5.42 per unit) × 100

= 0.6420 × 100

= 64.20%

Therefore, the Anthony's contribution margin ratio is 64.2%.

8 0
2 years ago
Impact of new vendor with zero opening balance
Marianna [84]

The impact of the vendor with the zero opening balance is to show that the account has been correctly set up.

<h3>What is the vendor opening balance?</h3>

This is the term that is used to refer to the amount of money that is in an account at the particular time that the account is newly opened.

The way that the vendor balance can be gotten is when the opening balances that are in a new year are carried forwards and the customers are done. In order to track this, the code that is to be used is F. 07.

The opening balance is what would have to be brought forward at the end of an accounting period and it is usually what the vendor would have to use as they try to keep a track of the cash flow that is in their account.

Hence we would say that the impact of the new vendor with this balance that is 0 is to help to determine how correct the set up of the account has been done.

Read more on opening balance here: brainly.com/question/26235574

#SPJ1

5 0
1 year ago
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