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stepladder [879]
3 years ago
7

Gideon Company uses the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts. On May 3, the Gideon Company wrote off the $2

,000 uncollectible account of its customer, A. Hopkins. On July 10, Gideon received a check for the full amount of $2,000 from Hopkins. On July 10, the entry or entries Gideon makes to record the recovery of the bad debt is:
Business
2 answers:
Olenka [21]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Debit Cash $2,000

Credit  Bad debt  $2,000

Being entries to record receivables settled by Hopkins that had previously been written off.

Explanation:

When a company makes sales on account, debit accounts receivable and credit sales. Based on assessment, some or all of the receivables may be uncollectible.  

To account for this, debit bad debit expense and credit allowance for doubtful debt. Should the debt become uncollectible (i.e go bad), debit allowance for doubtful debt and credit accounts receivable.

Where a debit that had previously been determined to have gone bad gets settled, debit cash and credit Bad debt or other income.

VARVARA [1.3K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

a. First set of entries:

Debit: Accounts receivable with $2,000

Credit: Bad debt expenses with $2,000

b. Second set of entries:

Debit: Cash with $2,000

Credit: Account receivables $2,000

Explanation:

These entries will appear as follows in the book Gideon Company on July 10:

Details                                                     DR ($)                  CR ($)

Accounts receivable                              2,000

Bad debt expenses                                                            2,000

<em>Being the transfer of the bad debt recovered back to the accounts receivable.</em>

Cash                                                         2,000

Account receivables                                                         2,000

<em>Being the cash income received in respect of bad debt recovered.</em>

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<span>The primary aspect to consider here would be the elasticity of the good that the firm is producing. If the good is inelastic, the firm will continually increase the price in the long run model. If the good is elastic, in the long run, prices and output will remain relatively fixed at the equilibrium point.</span>
8 0
3 years ago
Heavy Products, Inc. (HPI) developed standard costs for direct material and direct labor. In 2020, HPI estimated the following s
marissa [1.9K]

Answer:

C. $21,375 unfavorable

Explanation:

Standard rate = $30 per hour

Actual rate = $31.25

Actual time = 17,100 direct labor hours

Direct manufacturing labor price variance= Actual time * (Standard rate - Actual rate)

= 17,100 * ($30 - $31.25)

= 17,100 * (-$1.25)

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So, the Direct manufacturing labor price variance during June is $21,375 U.

5 0
3 years ago
Price rises from $10 to $11, and the quantity demanded falls from 100 units to 95 units. What is the price elasticity of demand
Sergeeva-Olga [200]

Answer:

0.54

Explanation:

Price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of quantity demanded to changes in price of the good.

Price elasticity of demand = midpoint change in quantity demanded / midpoint change in price  

Midpoint change in quantity demanded = change in quantity demanded / average of both demands

change in quantity demanded  = 100 - 95 = 5

average of both demands = (100 + 95) / 2 = 97.5

Midpoint change in quantity demanded = 5 / 97.5 = 0.051282

midpoint change in price = change in price / average of both price

change in price = $11 - $10 = 1

average of both price = ($11 + $10) / 2 = 10.5

midpoint change in price = 1 / 10.5 = 0.095238

Price elasticity of demand =  0.051282 / 0.095238 = 0.54

6 0
3 years ago
Suppose that the value of an investment in the stock market has increased at an average compound rate of about 5% since 1912. It
Fittoniya [83]

Answer:

FV= $159,840.60

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Initial investment= $1,000

Number of years= 2016 - 1912= 104

Interest rate= 5%

<u>To calculate the value of the investment today, we need to use the following formula:</u>

FV= PV*(1+i)^n

FV= 1,000*(1.05^104)

FV= $159,840.60

6 0
3 years ago
Kim Inc. is considering the replacement of a piece of equipment with a newer model. The following data has been collected: Old E
Ulleksa [173]

Answer:

Kim Inc.

The net advantage (disadvantage) of replacing the old equipment with the new equipment is:

= $7,500.

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

                                                     Old Equipment     New Equipment  

Purchase price                                 $262,500              $450,000

Accumulated depreciation                  95,000               0  

Annual operating costs                     300,000                245,000

Total operating costs for 10 years 3,000,000             2,450,000

Salvage                                                 92,500             0

Total incremental cost                 $2,907,500           $2,900,000

b) The net advantage obtained by Kim for replacing the old equipment with the new equipment is $7,500 ($2,907,500 - $2,900,000).  Note that the purchase price of the old equipment with its accumulated depreciation are not relevant costs.  This case is worked out without taking into account the time value of money.  Assuming that the present value of the cash flows was computed, a different result and conclusion would be reached.

4 0
3 years ago
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