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OLga [1]
3 years ago
10

1.Do you think a similar rule is true for cosine? That is, does –cos(θ) = cos(–θ)? Pick a value of θ and test this theory.

Mathematics
1 answer:
adell [148]3 years ago
7 0
1.Do you think a similar rule is true for cosine? That is, does -cos (θ) = cos (-θ)? Pick a value of θ and test this theory.

 It is not the same.
 To prove it, let's choose a value of the angle:
 θ = 45 degrees:
 -cos (θ) = cos (-θ)
 -cos (45) = cos (-45)
 - (root (2) / 2) = (root (2) / 2)
 answer:
 NOT fulfilled: -cos (θ) = cos (-θ) (false)

 2. Using your example above, speculate on a rule that might be true for cos (-θ). 
 cos (θ) = cos (-θ)
 To prove it, let's choose a value of the angle:
 θ = 45 degrees:
 cos (θ) = cos (-θ)
 cos (45) = cos (-45)
 (root (2) / 2) = (root (2) / 2)
 answer
 A rule for cosine can be:
 cos (θ) = cos (-θ)
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

By ratio test, we find the limit as n approaches infinity of

|[a_(n+1)]/a_n|

a_n = (-1)^(n - 1).(3^n)/(2^n.n^3)

a_(n+1) = (-1)^n.3^(n+1)/(2^(n+1).(n+1)^3)

[a_(n+1)]/a_n = [(-1)^n.3^(n+1)/(2^(n+1).(n+1)^3)] × [(2^n.n^3)/(-1)^(n - 1).(3^n)]

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Now, we take the limit of (3/2)[1/(1 + 1/n)³] as n approaches infinity

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The series is therefore, absolutely convergent, and the limit is 3/2

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