Answer:
please Elaborate like how much money do you have or something
Answer:
He should roll the funds over into a new IRA in the spouse's name
Explanation:
Since the son is expects to retire in 22 years, in which at that time he will be in need of the funds to pay for his or his Family annual living expenses the best advice I would give the son is for him to roll all the funds over into a new IRA in the name of spouse's because the IRA Account which is fully known as INDIVIDUAL RETIREMENT ACCOUNT is an individual retirement plan that can help to provides all tax the advantages that an individual needs for their retirement savings.
Answer:
The correct answer is b) The first tranche has the highest prepayment risk.
Explanation:
A collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) is a type of security backed by mortgage. It is comprised of a pool of mortgages that are bundled together and sold as an investment. Prepayment risk is the risk of loss of interest income due to early repayment of the principal by the borrower.
In the given situation, there are three tranches. The first tranche has the highest prepayment risk because it is receiving principal at the earliest. Hence, there is more of a chance of this principal being returned early and the CMO holder losing out on potential interest. Therefore, the prepayment risk of the first tranche is the highest among all three tranches.
Answer:
Answer is (A) $5,173
Explanation:
In calculating the net present value of an investment we discount the future cash flows by multiplying the future cashflows by the discounting factors attached to each year the cashflows will arise.
See Attachment for calculation done.