Answer: SEE EXPLANATION
Explanation:
Given the following ;
Values depending on Success
$150M, $135M, $95M, $80M
Risk free rate = 5% = 0.05
Pervebtage to be lost in case of bankruptcy = 25% = 0.25
A.) 0.25 × [( 150 + 135 + 95 + 80) ÷ 1.05] = $109.52 million
Assume a zero-coupon debt with a $100million face value
B.) 0.25 × [( 100 + 100 + (95×0.75) + (80×0.75)) ÷ 1.05] = $78.87 million
C.) Yield to maturity (YTM)
(100M÷78.87M) - 1
1.2679 - 1 = 0.2679 = 26.79%
Expected return = 5%
D.) Equity value
0.25 × [( 150 + 135 + (95×0.75) + (80×0.75)) ÷ 1.05] = $99.11 million
E.) share if no debt is issued
109.52 ÷ 10 = 10.95 per share
F.) Share price if debt of $100M is issued
99.11 ÷ 10 = 9.91 per share
The price differs because bankruptcy cost will Lower the share price.
Answer:
$500 gain and $185 tax
Explanation:
Sale of share = No. of NQOs × No. of shares × Selling price per share
= 10 × 10 × $20
= $2,000
Basis = No. of NQOs × No. of shares × share price @$15
= 10 × 10 × $15
= $1,500
Gain realised = Sale of share - Basis
= $2,000 - $1,500
= $500
The tax is calculated as follows:
= Gain realised × marginal tax rate
= $500 × 37%
= $185
Answer and Explanation:
The journal entry to record the issuance of the bond is as follows:
Cash Dr (5,000 × 103) $515,000
Discount on bond payable Dr $4,485,000
To Bond payable (5,000 × $1,000) $5,000,000
(Being the issuance of the bond is recorded)
Here cash and discount on bond payable is debited and credited the bond payable
Explanation:
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