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mars1129 [50]
3 years ago
5

You want to invest

Mathematics
1 answer:
Shtirlitz [24]3 years ago
8 0
Using the equation         >    A  =  Pe^rt

20000  =    10000e^0.1t    >       10%  =  0.1
 2  = e^0.1t
log 2  =    log e^0.1t               >     log to the base e
log 2  =  0.1t * 1              log e to the base e  =1
0.6931 = 0.1t
t =   6.931
   =    7 years
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Write the improper fraction as a mixed number in simplest form. 17/5
dalvyx [7]

Answer:

3 2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

3*5=15+2=17

3 0
3 years ago
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Please help me (please dont send links)
Burka [1]

Answer:

Part A

79.4

Part B

84

Part C

The science class

Step-by-step explanation:

The linear function representing the average test score in the math class, after taking <em>x</em> number of tests, f(x) = 0.2·x + 79

The science class average test score, after taking <em>x</em> number of tests, is given by the linear function g(x)

The values of g(x) are presented as follows;

x; 1, 2, 3

g(x); 86, 84, 82

Part A

By using the given function for the test average for the math class, f(x), when x = 2, we have;

f(2) = 0.2 × 2 + 79 = 79.4

The test average for the math class after completing test 2 = 79.4

Part B

The test average for the science class after completing test 2 from the table is 84

Part C

After completing test 4, the test average for the math class, f(4), is given as follows;

f(4) = 0.2 × 4 + 79 = 79.8

The test average for the science class after the completing test 4 is found by noting that the test average, g(x) decreases by 2 for each increase in the number of test taken, <em>x</em>, by 1

Given that the test average of the science, g(3) class after taking test 3 is 82, the test average after taking test 4, g(4) = g(3) - 2 = 82 - 2 = 80

g(4) = 80

Therefore, after completing test (4), the science class has a higher test average g(4) = 80, than the math class f(x) = 79.8

3 0
3 years ago
Could someone Please give the answer to...<br><br> 112 greater than or equal to b+128
kotegsom [21]
112\geq b+128\\\\b+128\leq112\ \ \ \ |subtract\ 128\ from\ both\ sides\\\\\boxed{b\leq-16}\\\\b\in(-\infty;-16]
4 0
4 years ago
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Romashka [77]

Answer:

0.0975 or 9.75%

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming that no engines fail simultaneously, the probability that exactly one engine fails is the probability that the first engine fails (15%) multiplied by the probability that the second engine does not fail (100% - 35%):

P = 0.15*(1-0.35)\\P=0.0975

The probability of exactly one engine failure is 0.0975 or 9.75%

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3 years ago
Which function has two x-intercepts, one at (0,0) and one at (4,0)?
Marizza181 [45]

Answer: it’s A on edgunity 2020

Step-by-step explanation:

Yes that’s it good job u want a gummy bear ? Or a sticker

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