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MrRissso [65]
3 years ago
14

If a journal entry and posting for accrued interest that incurred during this year but will be paid until next year is accidenta

lly omitted, what would be the impact on the financial statements?
Business
1 answer:
leva [86]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The correct answer is: Net Income would be overstated and Balance Sheet liabilities would be understated.

Explanation:

The Income Statement is a report that measures a company's financial performance over a specific accounting period. The Income Statement is also known as the Profit & Loss Statement and Earnings Statement. The Income Statement reflects the company's <em>revenues and expenses</em> during a certain period.

Thus, <em>if deferred interest is not recorded in the Income Statement, the Expenses and Liabilities will be understated and the Net Income would be overstated</em>.

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TYR just announced yesterday that its fourth-quarter earnings will be 35% lower than last year's fourth quarter. You observe tha
makkiz [27]

Answer: Investors expected the earnings increase to be smaller than what was actually announced.

Explanation:

Abnormal return on an asset such as stock refers to the difference between actual returns and expected returns. As such, if it is positive, that would mean that the actual returns are/ will be higher than the expected/anticipated returns.

TYR had an abnormal return of 3.7% which would mean that the the 35% lower fourth-quarter earnings was higher than investors expected from TYR.

4 0
3 years ago
On a production possibilities curve, a change from economic inefficiency to economic efficiency is obtained by a) movement along
galina1969 [7]

Answer:

c) movement from a point inside the curve to a point on the curve.

Explanation:

Option C is correct because the production possibilities curve shows the combination of goods produced by the economy efficiently and any point inside the curve shows the inefficiency of the economy while the point outside the curve shows that the economy can not achieve it. Therefore, change in economic inefficiency to efficiency leads to move point from inside to the point on the curve.

6 0
3 years ago
Calculate the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank with: a. Cash of $20 million, 0% b. Gen. Obligation municipal security of $100
Ulleksa [173]
This is what i found  Answer 1
Risk-Adjusted Asset Base
The calculation of the risk-adjusted asset base for a bank is as below-
Risk-adjusted asset = (Cash × 0%) + (municipal security × 20%) + (home mortgages × 50%) + (Commercial loans × 100%)
= (20 × 0%) + (100 × 20%) + (500 × 50%) + (300$ × 100%)
= 0 + 20 + 250 + 300
= $570 million
The outcome shows that the risk-adjusted or weighted asset based for the bank will be $570 million.
Tier1 and Tier 2 Capital:
If the bank has no off-balance sheet activity then minimum required level of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital will be-
Tier 1 capital = Risk-weighted asset × 4%
= $570 × 4%
= $22.8 million
Tier 2 capital = Maximum of 1.25% of risk-weighted asset
= $570 × 1.25%
= $7.125 million
Total capital = $22.8 + $7.125 => $29.925 million
The outcomes indicate that the minimum required level of Tier1 and Tier 2 capital is $22.8 million and $7.125 million for the bank.
Bank Comply with Capital Requirements:
If the bank has Tier 1 capital of $25 million and Tier 2 capital of $15 million then it will comply with its capital requirements of $29.925 million. It is because in this situation, total capital of bank is $37 million that is higher than the above calculated capital of $29.925 million.
Impact of off-Balance Sheet Activities on Capital Requirements
The addition of off-balance sheet activities might increase the capital requirement of the bank. It is because an off-balance sheet items is a financial contract that can create credit loss for the company due to credit risk. So, in case of adding off-balance sheet activities, a bank will require more capital to cover credit loss. Along with this, it can also increase the minimum ratio of capital to risk-weighted assets from 8% and in that situation; the bank will need more capital (Carmichael & Graham, 2012).
Answer 2
Probability of Repayment and Risk Premium
A).
If the rate on a one-year treasury bill is 6% and in case of loan default, no payments are expected on financial securities then the probability of repayment and the risk premium on 1 year AA-rated loan yielding 9 percent will be-
Probability of Repayment:
The following formula can be useful to determine probability of repayment.
P = (1 + I) / (1 + k)
Where,
I = 6%
k = 9%
Then, ...you have $2.19 left :D
 
4 0
3 years ago
What is 55 billion expressed in scientific notation?
iogann1982 [59]
55 x 10^9 hope this helped :D
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Sofia bought a couch that required a $60 down payment and $60 per month for the next eight months. Which type of liability does
Anna35 [415]
Answer should be d) a current liability
8 0
3 years ago
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