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coldgirl [10]
3 years ago
14

Which equation doesn't belong? 4(x+3)=9, 4+3×=9, 4×x+12=9, 9=12+4x

Mathematics
1 answer:
solmaris [256]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

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<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%7C%20%5Cfrac%7Bx%7D%7B4%7D%20%7C%20%20%3D%201" id="TexFormula1" title=" | \frac{x}{4} | =
nlexa [21]
The answer 4/4 is equal to 1.
8 0
4 years ago
The sales tax on the model rocket shown is $1.92. What is the percent of sales tax? A drawing of a model rocket with a tag label
astraxan [27]

<u><em>Answer:</em></u>

The sales tax is 8%

<u><em>Explanation:</em></u>

<u>We are given that:</u>

The price of the rocket is $24 and the sales tax is $1.92

To get the percentage of the sales tax, all we have to do is divide the sales tax by the price of the rocket and then multiply the quotient by 100 (to convert the ratio to percentage)

<u>This is done as follows:</u>

% of sales tax = \frac{tax}{price}*100

% of sales tax = \frac{1.92}{24}*100 = 8%

Hope this helps :)

4 0
3 years ago
Mrs. Miller deposited a check for $245.83 and a check for $418.72. She went to a non-company ATM and withdrew $80. She was charg
Natalka [10]

Answer: Your answer should be B

Step-by-step explanation: Give brainliest if it works!

8 0
3 years ago
Backgammon is a board game for two players in which the playing pieces are moved according to the roll of two dice. players win
Ivahew [28]

The rolls of the dice are independent, i.e. the outcome of the second die doesn't depend in any way on the outcome of the first die.

In cases like this, the probability of two events happening one after the other is the multiplication of the probabilities of the two events.

So, the probability of rolling two 6s is the multiplication of the probabilities of rolling a six with the first die, and another six with the second:

P(\text{rolling two 6s}) = P(\text{rolling a 6}) \cdot P(\text{rolling a 6}) = \dfrac{1}{6} \cdot \dfrac{1}{6}  = \dfrac{1}{36}

Similarly,

P(\text{rolling two 3s}) = P(\text{rolling a 3}) \cdot P(\text{rolling a 3}) = \dfrac{1}{6} \cdot \dfrac{1}{6}  = \dfrac{1}{36}

Actually, you can see that the probability of rolling any ordered couple is always 1/36, since the probability of rolling any number on both dice is 1/6:

P(\text{rolling any ordered couple}) = P(\text{rolling the first number}) \cdot P(\text{rolling the second number}) = \dfrac{1}{6} \cdot \dfrac{1}{6}  = \dfrac{1}{36}

7 0
3 years ago
Please help asap 25 pts
kolezko [41]

Hey look The answer is D

4 0
3 years ago
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