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MatroZZZ [7]
3 years ago
6

A 23 year old female presents with bilateral loss of central vision. You obtain a detailed family history and produced the assoc

iated pedigree. Which of the following transmission patterns is most consistent with this patient's family history?
a. Autosomal dominant
b. Autosomal recessive
c. X-linked dominant
d. X-linked recessive
e. Mitochondrial
Biology
1 answer:
sukhopar [10]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

e. Mitochondrial

Explanation:

  • This is a case of mitochondrial heredity so correct answer is e. Mitochondrial
  • In this case, the mother transfers her mitochondria to her children. So the child is affected. The male does not pass this trait on to his children.
  • We can see from the lineage that the mother has defective mitochondria so all their children will have defective mitochondria. One of his sons has mitochondrial, but is unable to pass it on to the next generation.
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Each of the four pedigrees that follow represents a human family within which a genetic disease is segregating. Affected individ
Ne4ueva [31]

 Answer:

<u> The following four traits are -: </u>

  • <u>Pedigree 1 -</u> A recessive trait (autosomal recessive)  is expressed by pedigree 1.
  • <u>Pedigree 2- Recessive inheritance is defined by Pedigree 2. </u>
  • <u>Pedigree 3</u> - The inheritance of the dominant trait (autosomal dominant) is illustrated by Pedigree 3.
  • <u>Pedigree 4-</u> An X-like dominant trait is expressed by Pedigree 4.    

Explanation:

<u>Explaination of each pedigree chart</u>-

  • Pedigree 1 demonstrates the <u>recessive trait </u>since their children have been affected by two unaffected individuals. If the characteristics were X-linked, in order to have an affected daughter, I-1 would have to be affected. X^A In this, both parents are autosomal recessive trait carriers, so the child will be affected by a 1/4 (aa)
  • <u> Recessive inheritance</u> is defined by <u>Pedigree 2</u>. This is<u> X-related inheritance as autosomal recessive</u> inheritance has already been accounted for in part 1. This inference is confirmed by evidence showing that the father (I-1) is unaffected and that only the sons exhibit the characteristic in generation II, suggesting that the mother must be the carrier. The individual I-2 is a carrier for this X-linked trait. A typical  Xa chromosome is attached to the unaffected father (I-1), so the chance of carrier II-5 is 1/2. Probability of an affected son = 1/2 (probability II-5 is a carrier) x 1/2 (probability II -5 contributes (X^A) x 1/2 (probability of Y from father II-6) = 1/8. An affected daughter's likelihood is 0 because a typical X^A must be contributed by II-6.
  • The inheritance of the<u> dominant trait</u> is demonstrated by <u>Pedigree 3 </u>because affected children still have affected parents (remember that all four diseases are rare). The trait must be <u>autosomal dominant</u> because it is passed down to the son by the affected father. There is a 1/2 risk that the heterozygous mother (II-5) would pass on mutant alleles to a child of either sex for an autosomal dominant feature.
  • <u>Pedigree 4</u> is an <u>X-linked dominant function</u> characterized by the transmission to all of his daughters from the affected father but none of his son. On the mutant X chromosome, the father (I-1) passes on to all his daughters and none of his sons. As seen by his normal phenotype, II-6 therefore does not bear the mutation. An affected child's likelihood is 0.    

In the question the pedigree chart was missing ,hence it is given below.

     

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