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lapo4ka [179]
3 years ago
5

How many whole numbers are there, whose squares and cubes have the same number of digits?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Naddik [55]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

there are only 4 whole numbers whose squares and cubes have the same number of digits.

Explanations:

let 0, 1, 2 and 4∈W (where W is a whole number), then

0^2=0, 0^3=0,

1^2=1, 1^3=1,

2^2=4, 2^3=8,

4^2=16, 4^3=64.

You can see from the above that only four whole numbers are there whose squares and cubes have the same number of digits







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On Megan’s road map, 1 inch represents 10 miles. How many miles would 4 inches represent and how do you know? (explain your thin
timurjin [86]

Answer:

The answer is 40 miles!

Step-by-step explanation:

1 inch= 10 miles

2 inches= 20 miles

3 inches= 30 miles

4 inches= 40 miles

Just count by tens

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3 years ago
Point V is on line segment \overline{UW}
andreev551 [17]

Answer: VW = 19

Step-by-step explanation: The segment UW has a point V between them, so:

UV + VW = UW

6 + 4x - 1 = 5x

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The numerical length is

VW = 4x - 1

VW = 4(5) - 1

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<u>The measure, numerically, of VW is 19</u>

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4 years ago
in the movie drawer there are seven action movies,five comedies,and three dramas. what is the probability of choosing an action
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3 years ago
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
4 years ago
Help for number 2 and 1
Sholpan [36]
1. 20 just add all of the d's together
6 0
3 years ago
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