Answer:
$80 lost for not working
Explanation:
Opportunity cost refers to the sacrificed benefits as a result of preferring on a particular option over another. As people make choices, the forfeit one option in favor of another. Opportunity cost is the missed value of the next best alternative.
For John, he has a choice between working or going to the concert. He has two tickets worth $50. Working would mean her twice her regular income, which is $20 per hour. If he works for four hours, his total earning will be $80. If John chooses to go to the concert, he will miss the opportunity to earn $80. The opportunity cost will be the missed $80 that he would have received from working.
false pat and chris each spend half their time on each task then: the outcome will be efficient they will plant more bulbs
<h3>What is
efficient?</h3>
Efficiency is the ability to avoid wasting materials, energy, efforts, money, and time while doing something or producing a desired result. In a broader sense, it is the ability to do things well, successfully, and efficiently.
The work efficiency formula is efficiency = output / input, and the result can be multiplied by 100 to calculate work efficiency as a percentage. This is used in a variety of energy and work measurement methods, such as energy production and machine efficiency.
Business efficiency refers to how much a company or organization can produce given the time, money, and resources available.
To know more about efficient follow the link:
brainly.com/question/26152499
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Answer: -$100
Explanation:
Value of forward contract = Selling price - Forward price on bond
Forward price = Present value of cashflows + Present value of bond
Periodic rate = 7%/ 2 = 3.5% per semi annum
= 8% / 2 = 4%
3.5% will be used to discount the payment 6 months from now as that is the 6 month rate. The rest will be 4%.
= (80 / (1 + 3.5%) ) + ( 80 / ( 1 + 4%)²) + (940 / ( 1 +4%)²)
= $1,020.342
= $1,020
Value of forward contract = 920 - 1,020
= -$100
Answer:
the expected return from the investment is higher than that of those investments whose standard deviation is greater than zero.
Explanation:
As for the coefficient of variation which clearly defines the difference in values from the mean value in the data set.
It clearly defines as standard deviation/mean.
Where standard deviation is 0 the coefficient will also be 0 which shall represent the risk associated with it.
The least the coefficient of variation the least the risk with maximum return.
Thus, the correct statement will be concluding that the expected return from this investment will be higher than the returns from the project in which standard deviation is more than 0.
Idk so you need to ask somebody else because I’m really dumb and I don’t have the answer for u
