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charle [14.2K]
3 years ago
9

At December 31, Folgeys Coffee Company reports the following results for its calendar year. Cash sales $ 901,000 Credit sales 30

1,000 Its year-end unadjusted trial balance includes the following items. Accounts receivable $ 126,000 debit Allowance for doubtful accounts 5,100 debit Prepare the adjusting entry to record bad debts expense assuming uncollectibles are estimated to be (a) 4% of credit sales, (b) 2% of total sales and (c) 7% of year-end accounts receivable.
Business
1 answer:
Anon25 [30]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Please find the detailed answer in the explanation section.

Explanation:

A. 4% of credit sales

Bad Debts Expense is 4% of $301,000

0.04 x $301,000

=$12,040

Adjusting entry

Dec. 31

Dr Bad debt expense $12,040

Cr Allowance for Doubtful allowance $12,040.

B. 2% of total sales

Total sales = cash sales + credit sales

$ 901,000 + $ 301,000

=$1,202,000

Bad Debts Expense is 2% of 1,202,000

0.02x $1,202,000

=$24,040

Adjusting entry

Dec. 31

Dr Bad debt expense $24,040

Cr Allowance for Doubtful allowance $24,040.

C. 7% of year-end accounts receivable.

Unadjusted balance is $5,100

Estimated balance = $8,820(7% of $126,000)

Adjusted balance is $13,920($5,100 + $8,820)

Adjusting entry

Dec. 31

Dr Bad debt expense $8,820

Cr Allowance for Doubtful allowance $8,820

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Payback Period Payson Manufacturing is considering an investment in a new automated manufacturing system. The new system require
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

a. 4 years

b. 5 years

Explanation:

The payback period is the time taken for the cash inflows from an investment to equal to the initial cash outflow or amount invested. To get this, the cash inflow are deducted from the outflows until the net is zero.

Considering both expected cash flows (all amounts in $);

Period    Initial out flow   Inflow         Balance         Inflow         Balance

Year 0    (1,200,000)              0          (1,200,000)       0            (1,200,000)      

Year 1                             300,000       (900,000)    150,000     (1,050,000)

Year 2                            300,000       (600,000)    150,000     (1,050,000)

Year 3                            300,000       (300,000)    400,000     (1,050,000)  

Year 4                            300,000               0           400,000     (1,050,000)  

Year 5                                                                        100,000     (1,050,000)

From the table above, with an inflow of $300,000 yearly, the inflows would equal the total outflow in 4 years while the annual cash flows: $150,000, $150,000, $400,000, $400,000, and $100,000 would make the inflows equal to the outflows in 5 years.

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Ware Co. produces and sells motorcycle parts. On the first day of its fiscal year, Ware issued $35,000,000 of five-year, 12% bon
nlexa [21]

Answer:

Cash proceeds is $37,702,607.23  

First premium amortization $214,869.64

Second premium amortization is $225,613.12

First year interest expense is $ 3,759,517.24  

Explanation:

The amount of cash proceeds from the bond issue is the pv of the bond using the pv formula,=-pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)

rate is 10% yield to maturity divided 2 since interest is semi-annual i.e 5%

nper is 5 years multiplied by 2=10

pmt is the semi-annual interest payable by the bond i.e $35,000,000*12%*6/12=$2,100,000

fv is the face value of the bond at $35,000,000

=-pv(5%,10,2100000,35000000)

pv=$37,702,607.23  

The amount of premium to be amortized in first semi-annual interest payment:

Interest expense=$$37,702,607.23*10%/2=$1,885,130.36  

coupon interest=$35,000,000*12%/2=$2,100,000

Premium amortized=$2,100,000-$1,885,130.36  

premium amortized=$214,869.64  

The amount of premium to be amortized in second semi-annual interest payment:

interest expense=($37,702,607.23+$2,100,000-$1,885,130.36)*10%/2

                           =$1,874,386.88  

Premium amortized=$2,100,000-$1,874,386.88

premium amortized=$225613.12

Bond expense for the first payment= 37,702,607.23*10%/2  

                                                           =$1,885,130.362

Bond expense for the first payment=  37,487,737.59  *10%/2  

                                                           =$ 1,874,386.88  

First year bond interest expense= 1,874,386.88+1,885,130.362  

                                                      =$ 3,759,517.24  

                                                     

Find attached schedule in addition

Download xlsx
4 0
3 years ago
Which best describes the types of indicators that the HDI measures?
dolphi86 [110]

Answer:

O social and economic indicators

Explanation:

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a statistic used to measure a country's achievements in different aspects of its social and economic welfare. The united nations developed HDI to evaluate different dimensions of human development in a country. Dimensions of human development refer to people's health, educational level, and standards of living.

The HDI  makes comparisons between countries by analyzing components such as average annual income and educational achievements.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A machine purchased on 1/1/21 for $24,000 and on which $14,400 of Accumulated Depreciation has been recorded through 12/31/23 wa
Amanda [17]

Answer:

Gain on disposal = $7600

Explanation:

As the machine is sold on 1 April 2024, we first need to update the depreciation expense and charge the depreciation to the date. The depreciation has been charged till 1 December 2023. So, we need to charge the depreciation for three more months.

The formula for depreciation expense under straight line method is,

Depreciation expense per year = (Cost - Salvage value) / Estimated useful life

Depreciation expense per year = (24000 - 0) / 5

Depreciation expense per year =  $4800 per year

Depreciation expense for three months = 4800 * 3/12 = $1200

Accumulated depreciation 1 April 2024 = 14400 + 1200  =  $15600

To calculate the gain or loss on disposal, we first need to determine the net book value of asset and deduct it from the cash received on disposal.

NBV = Cost - Accumulated depreciation

NBV = 24000 - 15600

NBV = $8400

Gain on disposal = 16000 - 8400

Gain on disposal = $7600

6 0
3 years ago
You believe you must withdraw $12,000 per month during retirement. You plan to be retired for 30 years. Assuming your money will
jek_recluse [69]

Answer:

$2,385,086

Explanation:

To answer this question, we need to use the present value of an ordinary annuity formula:

PV = A ((1-(1+i)^{-n} )/i)

Where:

  • A = Value of the annuity
  • i = interest rate
  • n = number of compounding periods

Because the interest rate is annual, it is convenient to convert it to a monthly rate.

4.5% annual rate = 0.37% monthly rate.

The number of compounding periods will be = 12 months x 30 years

                                                                            = 360 months

Now, we simply plug the amounts into the formula:

X = $12,000((1-(1 + 0.0037)^{-360} )/0.0037)

X = $2,385,086

You will need to have saved $2,385,086 if you plan to retire under the aforementioned circumstances.

7 0
3 years ago
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