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Colt1911 [192]
3 years ago
11

Your uncle is considering investing in a new company that will produce high quality stereo speakers. The sales price would be se

t at 1.50 times the variable cost per unit; the variable cost per unit is estimated to be $75.00; and fixed costs are estimated at $1,120,000. What sales volume would be required to break even, i.e., to have EBIT = zero?
Business
2 answers:
LenKa [72]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Explanation:

Breakeven point = fixed cost / (sales - variable cost)

0 = $1,120,000 / ($112.50 - $75)

0 = $1,120,000 / $37.5

0 = 29,866.67 units

*sales = $75*1.50 = $112.50

To check:

            Sales                 29,866.67 x 112.50 = 3,360,000

less      <u>variable cost     29,866.67 x 75.00 = 2,240,000</u>

           Gross profit                                            1,120,000

less      <u>fixed cost                                               1,120,000</u>

            Earnings before income tax                        0

earnstyle [38]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

29,867 units

Explanation:

Variable cost per unit (VC) = $75.00

Sales price (P) = 1.50 * VC = $112.50

Fixed costs (FC) = $1,120,000

Units sold (n) = ?

EBIT is given by:

EBIT = P*n - VC*n -FC

Therefore, the number of units sold required to break even is:

0 = 112.50*n - 75.00*n -1,120,000\\n=\frac{1,120,000}{37.5} \\n=29,866.7

Round up the value obtained to the next whole unit and the sales volume needed is 29,867 units.

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Kirby just inherited $250,000. He would like to hire a financial advisor to provide financial advice and to manage the inheritan
Blababa [14]

Answer:

The answer is A.

Explanation:

According to the details given in the question on the two financial advisor's approach, the first advisor does not request a payment but a commission on the funds purchased with the inheritance money. The second advisor does request payment for the job and also a share on the assets managed with the inheritance money.

If Kirby wants to minimize the upfront expenses which can be described as the sum that is paid before a service or a job is done, then the first advisor is the better option. So the answer is A.

I hope this answer helps.

5 0
3 years ago
Which statement below best captures the overall point and focus of the New York Times article, Document 3?
Artemon [7]

Answer:

Correct Answer:

C) The news story marks the historical event of the first black man being called up to play in the major leagues and expresses some concern over how Robinson will be treated by his major league peers.

Explanation:

<em>Option C ıs the best statement which captures the overall point and focus of the given New York Times article, Document 3.</em>

6 0
3 years ago
As a financial manager for WillPower, Inc, you have the following information: a) The company follows a residual dividend policy
8_murik_8 [283]

Answer:

a. Amount funded with equity is $4,800,000

b. Dividend is $3,200,000

c. Dividend Payout ratio is 40.00%

Explanation:

Note: This question is incomplete, and the complete one is as follows:

As a financial manager for WillPower, Inc, you have the following information: a) The company follows a residual dividend policy; b) The total capital budget for next year is likely to be $8,000,000; c) The forecasted level of earnings next year is $8,000,000; d) The target or optimal capital structure is a debt ratio of 40%;

Please answer the following questions:

a. What will be the amount funded with equity for the project ? (Keep the answer to a whole number. Example of answer format: $1,000,000)

b. Compute the amount of the dividend . (Keep the answer to a whole number. Example of answer format: $1,000,000)

c. Compute the dividend pay-out ratio . (Keep the answer to two decimals. Example of the answer format: 55.55%)

The following are therefore the explanation of the answers to the question:

a. What will be the amount funded with equity for the project ? (Keep the answer to a whole number. Example of answer format: $1,000,000)

Given that the target or optimal capital structure is a debt ratio of 40%, this implies that there will be 40% debt finance and 60% (100% - 40%) equity finance. Therefore, we have:

Amount funded with equity = Total capital budget for next year * Percentage of equity finance = 8,000,000 * 60% = $4,800,000

b. Compute the amount of the dividend. (Keep the answer to a whole number. Example of answer format: $1,000,000)

Since the company follows a residual dividend policy, it implies that the earnings available are employed to finance capital expenditure budget first before dividends are paid to the shareholders.

Since amount funded with equity is $4,800,000 as obtained in part a, it implies that this must be deducted first from the forecasted level of earnings next year to obtain the residual that will be paid as dividend as follows:

Dividend = Forecasted level of earnings next year - Amount funded with equity = $8,000,000 - $4,800,000 = $3,200,000

c. Compute the dividend pay-out ratio . (Keep the answer to two decimals. Example of the answer format: 55.55%)

Dividend payout ratio refers to the percentage of the earnings or net income of a company that is paid by the company to its shareholders as dividend. This can therefore be calculated

Dividend Payout ratio = Dividend / Earnings = $3,200,000 / $8,000,000 = 0.40, or 40.00%

Therefore, WillPower, Inc is expected to pay 40% of its earnings as dividend to its shareholders.

4 0
2 years ago
What is gross profit
astra-53 [7]
Gross profit is net sales minus the cost of goods sold. It reveals the amount that a business earns from the sale of its goods and services before the application of additional selling and administrative expenses.
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Pacific Ink had beginning work-in-process inventory of $762,960 on October 1. Of this amount, $313,920 was the cost of direct ma
BartSMP [9]

Answer:

Cost of goods transferred =$6,388,147.07

Cost of ending inventory=$1,068,478.93  

Explanation:

Equivalent unit of material = (120,000× 100%)+(39,000×75%)=149250

Cost per unit of material = Total cost /Total equivalent unit

=(313,920 +2,956,500)/149250 =21.912

Cost per conversion cost

Equivalent unit of conversion cost

= (120,000 × 100%) + ((39,000×35%)= 133,650

Cost per unit of conversion cost

= ($3,737,220 + $449,040)/133,650  = 31.322

Cost of goods transferred = 120,000× (21.912 + 31.322)= 6,388,147.07  

Cost of Inventory = (75%*39,000×21.912)+(35%× 39,000×31.322)

                             = 1,068,478.93  

Cost of goods transferred =$6,388,147.07

Cost of ending inventory=$1,068,478.93  

=

3 0
3 years ago
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