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3 years ago

When inside a closed work environment, it's okay to openly talk with co-workers about pii?

1 answer:

4 0

No, i don't think so
In this context, PII stands for personally identifiable information, which is a type of information that could be used to identify a certain individual, such as social security number. You don't know the true characteristic of your co-workers , so it is safer to keep your PII to yourself

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In long-run equilibrium, all firms in the industry earn zero economic profit. Why is this true? All firms in perfectly competi

zvonat [6]

Answer:

D. if profit were positive, then firms would enter, decreasing price, and if profit were negative, then firms would exit, increasing price.

Explanation:

Perfectly competitive firms are price takers, hence they cannot influence the price of their products.

Perfectly competitive industries have no barriers to entry or exist of firms ,so if in the short run, firms are earning economic profit, then firms would enter into the industry , decreasing price, and if profit were negative, then firms would exit, increasing price. This makes perfect competitive firms to earn zero economic profit in the long run.

8 0

3 years ago

Kendra Enterprises has never paid a dividend. Free cash flow is projected to be $80,000 and $100,000 for the next 2 years, respe

Lena [83]

Answer:

$856,376.30

Explanation:

What is the terminal, or horizon, value of operations?

2 years, FCF 1 = 80,000, FCFC 2 = 100,000, Growth rate= 5%, WACC = 16%

==> 100,000*(1+0.05)/(0.16-0.05)

==> 100,000*(1.05/0.11)

==> 100,000*(9.545454(

==> 954,545

Calculating the value of Kendra's operations.

Years Cash-flows PVF at 16% Present value

1 800,000 0.86206 68964.80

2 105,000 0.74316 78031.80

2 954,545 0.74316 709379.70

Total value 856,376.30

8 0

3 years ago

Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Roun

Dimas [21]

Answer:

a. Futuere Value = $19,245.86

b. Futuere Value = $3,060.86

c. Futuere Value = $0

d-1. Futuere Value = $21,170.44

d-2. Futuere Value = $3,213.90

d-3. Futuere Value = $0

Explanation:

Note: The data in the question are merged. They are therefore sorted before answering the question as follows:

Find the future values of these ordinary annuities. Compounding occurs once a year. Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your answers to the nearest cent.

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Explanation of the answer is now provided as follows:

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Ordinary Annuity given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) ................................. (1)

Where,

FV = Future value of the amount =?

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

a. $900 per year for 12 years at 10%. $ 19,245.85

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721

FV = $19,245.855390489

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = 19,245.86

b. $450 per year for 6 years at 5%. $ 3,060.86

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125

FV = $3,060.860765625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,060.86

c. $200 per year for 6 years at 0%. $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0)

FV = $200 * (0 / 0)

FV = $200 * 0

FV = $0

d. Rework parts a, b, and c assuming they are annuities due.

The formula for calculating the Future Value (FV) of an Annuity Due is given as follows:

FV = M * (((1 + r)^n - 1) / r) * (1 + r) ................................. (2)

Where,

FV = Future value

M = Annuity payment

r = Annual interest rate

n = number of periods years

This formula is now applied as follows:

d-1. Future value of $900 per year for 12 years at 10%: $ 21,170.43

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $900

r = 10%, or 0.10

n = 12

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $900 * (((1 + 0.10)^12 - 1) / 0.10) * (1 + 0.10)

FV = $900 * 21.38428376721 * 1.10

FV = $2,1170.4409295379

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $2,1170.44

d-2. Future value of $450 per year for 6 years at 5%: $ 3,213.90

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $450

r = 5%, or 0.05

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $450 * (((1 + 0.05)^6 - 1) / 0.05) * (1 + 0.05)

FV = $450 * 6.8019128125 * 1.05

FV = $3,213.90380390625

Rounding the nearest cent, we have:

FV = $3,213.90

d-3. Future value of $200 per year for 6 years at 0%: $

Therefore, we have:

FV = ?

M = $200

r = 0%, or 0

n = 6

Substituting the values into equation (2), we have:

FV = $200 * (((1 + 0)^6 - 1) / 0) * (1 + 0)

FV = $200 * ((1^6 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * ((1 - 1) / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * (0 / 0) * 1

FV = $200 * 0 * 1

FV = $0

8 0

3 years ago

The annual demand for a product is 15,300 units. The weekly demand is 294 units with a standard deviation of 90 units. The cost

antiseptic1488 [7]

Answer:

Reorder point = (weekly demand * lead time) + (Z * standard deviation * √lead time) = (294 * 10) + (2.326 * 90 * √10) = 2,940 + 661.99 = 3,602 units

Old safety stock = Z * standard deviation * √lead time = 662 units

new safety stock = 331

331 = Z * 90 * √10

Z = 331 / 284.60 = 1.163

Using Normal distribution function, the new confidence interval is 87.76%

3 0

3 years ago

A corporation following a _________ emphasizing vertical or horizontal growth would probably want an aggressive new chief execut

UkoKoshka [18]

Answer:

concentration strategy

Explanation:

This is an approach in which a business focuses on a single market or product which allows the company to invest more resources in production and marketing in that one area.

3 0

3 years ago

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